XXIII. The Myth of the Earnings Yield

In American novels, well into the 1950's, one finds

protagonists using the future stream of dividends

emanating from their share holdings to send their kids to

college or as collateral. Yet, dividends seemed to have

gone the way of the Hula-Hoop. Few companies distribute

erratic and ever-declining dividends. The vast majority

don't bother. The unfavorable tax treatment of distributed

profits may have been the cause.

The dwindling of dividends has implications which are

nothing short of revolutionary. Most of the financial

theories we use to determine the value of shares were

developed in the 1950's and 1960's, when dividends were

in vogue. They invariably relied on a few implicit and

explicit assumptions:

1. That the fair "value" of a share is closely

correlated to its market price;

2. That price movements are mostly random, though

somehow related to the aforementioned "value" of

the share. In other words, the price of a security is

supposed to converge with its fair "value" in the

long term;

3. That the fair value responds to new information

about the firm and reflects it - though how

efficiently is debatable. The strong efficiency

market hypothesis assumes that new information is

fully incorporated in prices instantaneously.

But how is the fair value to be determined?

A discount rate is applied to the stream of all future

income from the share - i.e., its dividends. What should

this rate be is sometimes hotly disputed - but usually it is

the coupon of "riskless" securities, such as treasury bonds.

But since few companies distribute dividends -

theoreticians and analysts are increasingly forced to deal

with "expected" dividends rather than "paid out" or actual

ones.

The best proxy for expected dividends is net earnings. The

higher the earnings - the likelier and the higher the

dividends. Thus, in a subtle cognitive dissonance, retained

earnings - often plundered by rapacious managers - came

to be regarded as some kind of deferred dividends.

The rationale is that retained earnings, once re-invested,

generate additional earnings. Such a virtuous cycle

increases the likelihood and size of future dividends. Even

undistributed earnings, goes the refrain, provide a rate of

return, or a yield - known as the earnings yield. The

original meaning of the word "yield" - income realized by

an investor - was undermined by this Newspeak.

Why was this oxymoron - the "earnings yield" -

perpetuated?

According to all current theories of finance, in the absence

of dividends - shares are worthless. The value of an

investor's holdings is determined by the income he stands

to receive from them. No income - no value. Of course, an

investor can always sell his holdings to other investors

and realize capital gains (or losses). But capital gains -

though also driven by earnings hype - do not feature in

financial models of stock valuation.

Faced with a dearth of dividends, market participants -

and especially Wall Street firms - could obviously not live

with the ensuing zero valuation of securities. They

resorted to substituting future dividends - the outcome of

capital accumulation and re-investment - for present ones.

The myth was born.

Thus, financial market theories starkly contrast with

market realities.

No one buys shares because he expects to collect an

uninterrupted and equiponderant stream of future income

in the form of dividends. Even the most gullible novice

knows that dividends are a mere apologue, a relic of the

past. So why do investors buy shares? Because they hope

to sell them to other investors later at a higher price.

While past investors looked to dividends to realize income

from their shareholdings - present investors are more into

capital gains. The market price of a share reflects its

discounted expected capital gains, the discount rate being

its volatility. It has little to do with its discounted future

stream of dividends, as current financial theories teach us.

But, if so, why the volatility in share prices, i.e., why are

share prices distributed? Surely, since, in liquid markets,

there are always buyers - the price should stabilize around

an equilibrium point.

It would seem that share prices incorporate expectations

regarding the availability of willing and able buyers, i.e.,

of investors with sufficient liquidity. Such expectations

are influenced by the price level - it is more difficult to

find buyers at higher prices - by the general market

sentiment, and by externalities and new information,

including new information about earnings.

The capital gain anticipated by a rational investor takes

into consideration both the expected discounted earnings

of the firm and market volatility - the latter being a

measure of the expected distribution of willing and able

buyers at any given price. Still, if earnings are retained

and not transmitted to the investor as dividends - why

should they affect the price of the share, i.e., why should

they alter the capital gain?

Earnings serve merely as a yardstick, a calibrator, a

benchmark figure. Capital gains are, by definition, an

increase in the market price of a security. Such an increase

is more often than not correlated with the future stream of

income to the firm - though not necessarily to the

shareholder. Correlation does not always imply causation.

Stronger earnings may not be the cause of the increase in

the share price and the resulting capital gain. But

whatever the relationship, there is no doubt that earnings

are a good proxy to capital gains.

Hence investors' obsession with earnings figures. Higher

earnings rarely translate into higher dividends. But

earnings - if not fiddled - are an excellent predictor of the

future value of the firm and, thus, of expected capital

gains. Higher earnings and a higher market valuation of

the firm make investors more willing to purchase the

stock at a higher price - i.e., to pay a premium which

translates into capital gains.

The fundamental determinant of future income from share

holding was replaced by the expected value of share-

ownership. It is a shift from an efficient market - where all

new information is instantaneously available to all rational

investors and is immediately incorporated in the price of

the share - to an inefficient market where the most critical

information is elusive: how many investors are willing

and able to buy the share at a given price at a given

moment.

A market driven by streams of income from holding

securities is "open". It reacts efficiently to new

information. But it is also "closed" because it is a zero

sum game. One investor's gain is another's loss. The

distribution of gains and losses in the long term is pretty

even, i.e., random. The price level revolves around an

anchor, supposedly the fair value.

A market driven by expected capital gains is also "open"

in a way because, much like less reputable pyramid

schemes, it depends on new capital and new investors. As

long as new money keeps pouring in, capital gains

expectations are maintained - though not necessarily

realized.

But the amount of new money is finite and, in this sense,

this kind of market is essentially a "closed" one. When

sources of funding are exhausted, the bubble bursts and

prices decline precipitously. This is commonly described

as an "asset bubble".

This is why current investment portfolio models (like

CAPM) are unlikely to work. Both shares and markets

move in tandem (contagion) because they are exclusively

swayed by the availability of future buyers at given prices.

This renders diversification inefficacious. As long as

considerations of "expected liquidity" do not constitute an

explicit part of income-based models, the market will

render them increasingly irrelevant.

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