1. "BONDMEN." The fact that servants from the heathen are called

"_bondmen_," while others are called "_servants_," is quoted as proof

that the former were slaves. As the caprices of King James' translators

were not inspired, we need stand in no special awe of them. The word

here rendered bondmen is uniformly rendered servants elsewhere. The

Hebrew word "_ebedh_," the plural of which is here translated

"_bondmen_," is often applied to Christ. "Behold my _servant_ (bondman,

slave?) whom I uphold." Isa. xlii. 1. "Behold my _servant_ (Christ)

shall deal prudently." Isa. lii. 13. "And he said it is a light thing

that thou (Christ) shouldst be my _servant_." Isa. xlix. 6. "To a

_servant_ of rulers." Isa. xlix. 7. "By his knowledge shall my righteous

_servant_ (Christ) justify many." Is. liii. 11. "Behold I will bring

forth my _servant_ the BRANCH." Zech. iii. 8. In 1 Kings xii. 6, 7, it

is applied to King Rehoboam. "And they spake unto him, saying if thou

wilt be a _servant_ unto this people, then they will be thy _servants_

forever." In 2 Chron. xii. 7, 8, 9, 13, to the king and all the nation.

The word is used to designate those who perform service for _individuals

or families_, about thirty-five times in the Old Testament. To designate

_tributaries_ about twenty-five times. To designate the _subjects of

government_, about thirty-three times. To designate the worshippers both

of the true God, and of false gods, about seventy times. It is also used

in salutations and courteous addresses nearly one hundred times. In

fine, the word is applied to all persons doing service for others, and

that _merely to designate them as the performers of such service_,

whatever it might be, or whatever the ground on which it might be

rendered. To argue from the fact, of this word being used to designate

domestic servants, that they were made servants by _force_, worked

without pay, and held as articles of property, is such a gross

assumption and absurdity as to make formal refutation ridiculous. We

repeat what has been shown above, that the word rendered bondmen in Lev.

xxv. 44, is used to point out persons rendering service for others,

totally irrespective of the principle on which that service was

rendered; as is manifest from the fact that it is applied

indiscriminately to tributaries, to domestics, to all the subjects of

governments, to magistrates, to all governmental officers, to younger

sons--defining their relation to the first born, who is called _lord_

and _ruler_--to prophets, to kings, and to the Messiah. To argue from

the meaning of the word _ebedh_ as used in the Old Testament, that those

to whom it was applied rendered service against their will, and without

pay, does violence to the scripture use of the term, sets at nought all

rules of interpretation, and outrages common sense. If _any_ inference

as to the meaning of the term is to be drawn from the condition and

relations of the various classes of persons, to whom it is applied, the

only legitimate one would seem to be, that the term designates a person

who renders service to another in return for something of value received

from him. The same remark applies to the Hebrew verb _abadh_, to serve,

answering to the noun _ebedh_ (servant). It is used in the Old Testament

to describe the _serving_ of tributaries, of worshippers, of domestics,

of Levites, of sons to a father, of younger brothers to the elder, of

subjects to a ruler, of hirelings, of soldiers, of public officers to

the government, of a host to his guests, &c. Of these it is used to

describe the serving of _worshippers_ more than forty times, of

_tributaries_, about thirty five, and of servants or domestics, about

_ten_.

If the Israelites not only held slaves, but multitudes of them, if

Abraham had thousands, and if they abounded under the Mosaic system, why

had their language no word that _meant slave_? That language must be

wofully poverty-stricken, which has no signs to represent the most

common and familiar objects and conditions. To represent by the same

word, and without figure, property, and the owner of that property, is a

solecism. Ziba was an "_ebedh_," yet he "_owned_" (!) twenty _ebedhs_!

In our language, we have both _servant_ and _slave_. Why? Because we

have both the _things_, and need _signs_ for them. If the tongue had a

sheath, as swords have scabbards, we should have some _name_ for it: but

our dictionaries give us none. Why? Because there is no such _thing_.

But the objector asks, "Would not the Israelites use their word _ebedh_

if they spoke of the slave of a heathen?" Answer. Their _national_

servants or tributaries, are spoken of frequently, but domestics

servants so rarely, that no necessity existed, even if they were slaves,

for coining a new word. Besides, the fact of their being domestics,

under _heathen laws and usages_, proclaimed their liabilities; their

_locality_ made a _specific_ term unnecessary. But if the Israelites had

not only _servants_, but a multitude of _slaves_, a _word meaning

slave_, would have been indispensible for every day convenience.

Further, the laws of the Mosaic system were so many sentinels on the

outposts to warn off foreign practices. The border ground of Canaan, was

quarantine ground, enforcing the strictest non-intercourse in usages

between the without and the within.

2. "BUY." The _buying_ of servants, is discussed at length. pp. 17-23.

To that discussion the reader is referred. We will add in this place but

a single consideration. This regulation requiring the Israelites to

_"buy"_ servants of the heathen, prohibited their taking them without

buying. _Buying_ supposes two parties: a _price_ demanded by one and

paid by the other, and consequently, the _consent_ of both buyer and

seller, to the transaction. Of course the command to the Israelites to

_buy_ servants of the heathen, prohibited their getting them unless they

first got _somebody's_ consent to the transaction, and paid to

_somebody_ a fair equivalent. Now, who were these _somebodies_? This at

least is plain, they were not _Israelites_, but heathen. "Of _them_

shall ye buy." Who then were these _somebodies_, whose right was so

paramount, that _their_ consent must be got and the price paid must go

into _their_ pockets? Were they the persons themselves who became

servants, or some _other_ persons. "Some _other_ persons to be sure,"

says the objector, "the countrymen or the neighbors of those who become

servants." Ah! this then is the import of the Divine command to the

Israelites.

"When you go among the heathen round about to get a man to work for you,

I straightly charge you to go first to his _neighbors_, get _their_

consent that you may have him, settle the terms with _them_, and pay to

them a fair equivalent. If it is not _their_ choice to let him go, I

charge you not to take him on your peril. If _they_ consent, and you pay

_them_ the full value of his labor, then you may go and catch the man

and drag him home with you, and make him work for you, and I will bless

you in the work of your hands and you shall eat of the fat of the land.

As to the man himself, his choice is nothing, and you need give him

nothing for his work: but take care and pay his _neighbors_ well for

him, and respect _their_ free choice in taking him, for to deprive a

heathen man by force and without pay of the _use of himself_ is well

pleasing in my sight, but to deprive his heathen neighbors of the use of

him is that abominable thing which my soul hateth."

3. "FOREVER." This is quoted to prove that servants were to serve during

their life time, and their posterity from generation to generation.[A]

No such idea is contained in the passage. The word "forever," instead of

defining the length of _individual_ service, proclaims the permanence of

the regulation laid down in the two verses preceding, namely, that their

_permanent domestics_ should be of the _Strangers_, and not of the

Israelites; it declares the duration of that general provision. As if

God had said, "You shall _always_ get your _permanent_ laborers from the

nations round about you; your servants shall _always_ be of that class

of persons." As it stands in the original, it is plain--"_Forever of

them shall ye serve yourselves_." This is the literal rendering.

[Footnote A: One would think that the explicit testimony of our Lord

should for ever forestall all cavil on this point. "_The servant abideth

not in the house_ FOR EVER, but the Son, abideth ever." John viii. 35.]

That "_forever_" refers to the permanent relations of a _community_,

rather than to the services of _individuals_, is a fair inference from

the form of the expression, "Both thy bondmen, &c., shall be of the

_heathen_. OF THEM shall ye buy." "They shall be your possession." "THEY

shall be your bondmen forever." "But over your brethren the CHILDREN OF

ISRAEL," &c. To say nothing of the uncertainty of _these individuals_

surviving those _after_ whom they are to live, the language used applies

more naturally to a _body_ of people, than to _individual_ servants.

Besides _perpetual_ service cannot be argued from the term _forever_.

The ninth and tenth verses of the same chapter limit it absolutely by

the jubilee. "Then thou shalt cause the trumpet of the jubilee to sound

* * throughout ALL your land." "And ye shall proclaim liberty throughout

all the land unto ALL the inhabitants thereof." It may be objected that

"inhabitants" here means _Israelitish_ inhabitants alone. The command

is, "Proclaim liberty throughout all the land unto ALL _the inhabitants

thereof_." Besides, in the sixth verse, there is an enumeration of the

different classes of the inhabitants, in which servants and Strangers

are included; and in all the regulations of the jubilee, and the

sabbatical year, the Strangers are included in the precepts,

prohibitions, and promises. Again: the year of jubilee was ushered in by

the day of atonement. What did these institutions show forth? The day of

atonement prefigured the atonement of Christ, and the year of jubilee,

the gospel jubilee. And did they prefigure an atonement and a jubilee to

_Jews_ only? Were they types of sins remitted, and of salvation

proclaimed to the nation of Israel alone? Is there no redemption for us

Gentiles in these ends of the earth, and is our hope presumption and

impiety? Did that old partition wall survive the shock that made earth

quake, and hid the sun, burst graves and rocks, and rent the temple

veil? and did the Gospel only rear it higher to thunder direr perdition

from its frowning battlements on all without? No! The God of OUR

salvation lives. "Good tidings of great joy shall be to ALL people." One

shout shall swell from all the ransomed, "Thou hast redeemed us unto God

by thy blood out of EVERY kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation."

To deny that the blessings of the jubilee extended to the servants from

the _Gentiles_, makes Christianity _Judaism_.[A] It not only eclipses

the glory of the Gospel, but strikes out its sun. The refusal to release

servants at the jubilee falsified and disannulled a grand leading type

of the atonement, and was a libel on the doctrine of Christ's

redemption. But even if _forever_ did refer to _individual_ service, we

have ample precedents for limiting the term by the jubilee. The same

word defines the length of time which _Jewish_ servants served who did

not go out at the end of their six years' term. And all admit that they

went out at the jubilee. Ex. xxi. 2-6; Deut. xv. 12-17. The 23d verse of

the same chapter is quoted to prove that "_forever_" in the 46th verse

extends beyond the jubilee. "The land shall not be sold FOREVER, for the

land is mine"--since it would hardly be used in different senses in the

same general connection. As _forever_, in the 46th verse, respects the

_general arrangement_, and not _individual service_ the objection does

not touch the argument. Besides, in the 46th verse, the word used is

_Olam_, meaning _throughout the period_, whatever that may be. Whereas

in the 23d verse, it is _Tsemithuth_, meaning, a _cutting off_, or _to

be cut off_; and the import of it is, that the owner of an inheritance

shall not forfeit his _proprietorship_ of it; though it may for a time

pass from his control into the hands of his creditors or others, yet the

owner shall be permitted to _redeem_ it, and even if that be not done,

it shall not be "_cut off_," but shall revert to him at the jubilee.

[Footnote A: So far from the Strangers not being released by the

proclamation of liberty on the morning of the jubilee, they were the

only persons who were, as a body, released by it. The rule regulating

the service of Hebrew servants was, "Six years shall he serve, and in

the seventh year he shall go out free." The _free holders_ who had

"fallen into decay," and had in consequence mortgaged their inheritances

to their more prosperous neighbors, and become in some sort their

servants, were released by the jubilee, and again resumed their

inheritances. This was the only class of Jewish servants (and it could

not have been numerous,) which was released by the jubilee; all others

went out at the close of their six years' term.]

3. "INHERITANCE AND POSSESSION." "Ye shall take them as an INHERITANCE

for your children after you to inherit them for a POSSESSION. This, as

has been already remarked refers to the _nations_, and not to the

_individual_ servants procured from the senations. The holding of

servants as a _possession_ is discussed at large pp. 47-64. To what is

there advanced we here subjoin a few brief considerations. We have

already shown, that servants could not he held as a _property_

possession, and inheritance; that they became such of their _own

accord_, were paid wages, released from their regular labor nearly _half

the days in each year_, thoroughly _instructed_ and _protected_ in all

their personal, social, and religious rights, equally with their

masters. All remaining, after these ample reservations, would be small

temptation, either to the lust of power or of lucre; a profitable

"possession" and "inheritance," truly! What if our American slaves were

all placed in _just such a condition_! Alas, for that soft, melodious

circumlocution, "OUR PECULIAR species of property!" Verily, emphasis

would be cadence, and euphony and irony meet together! What eager

snatches at mere words, and bald technics, irrespective of connection,

principles of construction, Bible usages, or limitations of meaning by

other passages--and all to eke out such a sense as sanctifies existing

usages, thus making God pander for lust. The words _nahal_ and _nahala_,

inherit and inheritance, by no means necessarily signify _articles of

property_. "The people answered the king and said, "we have none

_inheritance_ in the son of Jesse." 2 Chron. x. 16. Did they mean

gravely to disclaim the holding of their king as an article of

_property_? "Children are an _heritage_ (inheritance) of the Lord." Ps.

cxxvii. 3. "Pardon our iniquity, and take us for thine _inheritance_."

Ex. xxxiv. 9. When God pardons his enemies, and adopts them as children,

does he make them _articles of property_? Are forgiveness, and

chattel-making, synonymes? "_I_ am their _inheritance_." Ezek. xliv. 28.

"I shall give thee the heathen for thine _inheritance_." Ps. ii. 18. See

also Deut. iv. 20; Josh. xiii. 33; Ps. lxxxii. 8; lxxviii. 62, 71; Prov.

xiv. 18.

The question whether the servants were a PROPERTY-"_possession_," has

been already discussed, pp. 47-64, we need add in this place but a word.

As an illustration of the condition of servants from the heathen that

were the "possession" of Israelitish families, and of the way in which

they became servants, the reader is referred to Isa. xiv. 1, 2. "For the

Lord will have mercy on Jacob, and will yet choose Israel, and set them

in their own land; and the strangers will be _joined_ with them, and

_they shall CLEAVE to the house of Jacob_. And the people shall take

them and bring them to their place, and the house of Israel shall

_possess_ them in the land of the Lord for servants and handmaids; and

they shall take them captives, whose captives they were; and they shall

rule over the oppressors."

We learn from these verses, 1st. That these servants which were to be

"_possessed_" by the Israelites, were to be "joined with them," i.e.,

become proselytes to their religion. 2d. That they should "CLEAVE to the

house of Jacob," i.e., that they would forsake their own people

voluntarily, attach themselves to the Israelites as servants, and of

their own free choice leave home and friends, to accompany them on their

return, and to take up their permanent abode with them, in the same

manner that Ruth accompanied Naomi from Moab to the land of Israel, and

that the "souls gotten" by Abraham in Padanaram, accompanied him when he

left it and went to Canaan. "And the house of Israel shall _possess_

them for servants," i.e. shall _have_ them for servants.

In the passage under consideration, "they shall be your _possession_,"

the original word translated "possession" is _ahuzza_. The same word is

used in Gen. xlvii. 11. "And Joseph placed his father and his brethren,

and gave them a _possession_ in the land of Egypt." Gen. xlvii. 11. In

what sense was Goshen the _possession_ of the Israelites? Answer, in the

sense of _having it to live in_, not in the sense of having it as

_owners_. In what sense were the Israelites to _possess_ these nations,

and _take them_ as an _inheritance for their children_? Answer, they

possessed them as a permanent source of supply for domestic or household

servants. And this relation to these nations was to go down to posterity

as a standing regulation, having the certainty and regularity of a

descent by inheritance. The sense of the whole regulation may be given

thus: "Thy permanent domestics, which thou shalt have, shall be of the

nations that are round about you, of _them_ shall ye buy male and female

domestics." "Moreover of the children of the foreigners that do sojourn

among you, of _them_ shall ye buy, and of their families that are with

you, which they begat in your land, and _they_ shall be your permanent

resource." "And ye shall take them as a _perpetual_ source of supply to

whom your children after you shall resort for servants. ALWAYS, _of

them_ shall ye serve yourselves." The design of the passage is manifest

from its structure. So far from being a permission to purchase slaves,

it was a prohibition to employ Israelites for a certain term and in a

certain grade of service, and to point out the _class_ of persons from

which they were to get their supply of servants, and the _way_ in which

they were to get them.[A]

[Footnote A: Rabbi Leeser, who translated from the German the work

entitled "Instruction in the Mosaic Religion" by Professor Jholson of

the Jewish seminary at Frankfort-on-the-Main, in his comment on these

verses, says, "It must be observed that it was prohibited to SUBJECT _a

Stranger to slavery_. The _buying_ of slaves _alone_ is permitted, but

not stealing them."

Now whatever we call that condition in which servants were, whether

servitude or slavery, and whatever we call the persons in that

condition, whether servants or _slaves_, we have at all events, the

testimony that the Israelites were prohibited to _subject_ a Stranger to

that condition, or in other words, the free choice of the servant was

not to be compelled. ]

OBJECTION IV. "_If thy brother that dwelleth by thee be waxen poor, and

be sold unto thee, thou shalt not compel him to serve as a BOND-SERVANT

but as an HIRED-SERVANT, and as a sojourner shall he be with thee, and

shall serve thee unto the year of jubilee_." Lev. xxv. 39, 40.

As only _one_ class is called "_hired_," it is inferred that servants of

the other class were _not paid_ for their labor. That God, while

thundering anathemas against those who "used their neighbor's service

without wages," granted a special indulgence to his chosen people to

force others to work, and rob them of earnings, provided always, in

selecting their victims, they spared "the gentlemen of property and

standing," and pounced only upon the strangers and the common people.

The inference that "_hired_" is synonymous with _paid_, and that those

servants not _called_ "hired," were _not paid_ for their labor, is a

mere assumption. The meaning of the English verb to _hire_, is to

procure for a _temporary_ use at a certain price--to engage a person to

temporary service for wages. That is also the meaning of the Hebrew word

"_saukar_." It is not used when the procurement of _permanent_ service

is spoken of. Now, we ask, would _permanent_ servants, those who

constituted a stationary part of the family, have been designated by the

same term that marks _temporary_ servants? The every-day distinctions in

this matter, are familiar as table-talk. In many families the domestics

perform only the _regular_ work. Whatever is occasional merely, as the

washing of a family, is done by persons hired expressly for the purpose.

The familiar distinction between the two classes, is "servants," and

"hired help," (not _paid_ help.) _Both_ classes are _paid_. One is

permanent, and the other occasional and temporary, and _therefore_ in

this case called "hired."[A] A variety of particulars are recorded

distinguishing, _hired_ from _bought_ servants. 1. Hired servants were

paid daily at the close of their work. Lev. xix. 13; Deut. xxiv. 14, 15;

Job. vii. 2; Matt. xx. 8. "_Bought_" servants were paid in advance, (a

reason for their being called _bought_,) and those that went out at the

seventh year received a _gratuity_. Deut. xv. 12, 13. 2. The "hired"

were paid _in money_, the "bought" received their _gratuity_, at least,

in grain, cattle, and the product of the vintage. Deut. xv. 14. 3. The

"hired" _lived_ in their own families, the "bought" were a part of their

masters' families. 4. The "hired" supported their families out of their

wages; the "bought" and their families were supported by the master

_beside_ their wages. 5. Hired servants were expected to work more

_constantly_, and to have more _working hours_ in the day than the

bought servants. This we infer from the fact, that "a hireling's day,"

was a sort of proverbial phrase, meaning a _full_ day. No subtraction of

time being made from it. So _a hireling's year_ signifies an entire year

without abatement. Job. vii. 1; xiv. 6; Isa. xvi. 14; xxi. 16.

[Footnote A: To suppose a servant robbed of his earnings because he is

not called a _hired_ servant, is profound induction! If I employ a man

at twelve dollars a month to work my farm, he is my "_hired_" man, but

if _I give him such a portion of the crop_, or in other words, if he

works my farm "_on shares_," every farmer knows that he is no longer

called a "_hired_" man. Yet he works the same farm, in the same way, at

the same times, and with the same teams and tools; and does the same

amount of work in the year, and perhaps clears twenty dollars a month,

instead of twelve. Now as he is no longer called "hired," and as he

still works my farm, suppose my neighbors sagely infer, that since he is

not my "_hired_" laborer, I _rob_ him of his earnings, and with all the

gravity of owls, pronounce their oracular decision, and hoot it abroad.

My neighbors are deep divers! like some theological professors, they go

not only to the bottom but come up covered with the tokens.]

The Anti-Slavery Examiner, Part 1 of 4 · 第 42 / 59 段