1. To find out exactly what the Bible teaches as to the endlessness of
future punishment let us turn first of all to the words of our Lord
Jesus Himself in Matt. 25:46 (R. V.), +"And these shall go away into
eternal punishment: but the righteous into eternal life."+ The first
question that confronts us in studying this passage is what the word
_aionios_ (_aionion_) which is here translated "_eternal_" means. The
best Greek-English dictionary of the New Testament is Thayer's. In this
dictionary Thayer after a careful study of the word, its derivation
and its usage, gives these three definitions of the word, and these
three only: (1) "Without beginning or end, that which always has been
and always will be." (2) "Without beginning." (3) "Without end, never
to cease, everlasting." It is frequently said that the word _aionios_
according to its derivation means _age-lasting_, and therefore may
refer to a limited period. Even admitting this to be true, we should
bear in mind that the meaning of words is not determined by their
derivation but by their usage, and the most important question is
not what the derivation of this word may be, but as to how it is
used in the New Testament. It is used 72 times in the New Testament.
Forty-four of these 72 times it is used in the phrase "eternal life,"
or as it is sometimes rendered, "everlasting life." No one questions
that everlasting life is endless and that in connection with the word
"life" "age lasting" (if that be its proper derivation of the word)
means _lasting through all ages, never ending_. Once it is used in
connection with the word "habitations," referring to the habitations
which the blessed are to have in the world to come, and, of course,
these also are never-ending. Once it is used of the "weight of glory"
that in the world to come awaits the believer in Jesus Christ who
endures affliction for Christ in the life that now is. In this case
again, of course, by universal consent it means endless. Once it is
used of the "house not made with hands" that believers in Christ are
to receive at the coming of the Lord Jesus (II Cor. 5:1-8). Of course,
this "house not made with hands" is everlasting. In fact the very point
that is being brought forward in this passage is the contrast between
our present bodies which are but for a brief time and our resurrection
bodies which are to exist throughout all eternity. Once it is used of
the future unseen things that never end, contrasted with the present
seen things that are for a season (II Cor. 4:18). Of course, these
are never-ending. That is the very point that is being brought out in
the contrast. Once it is used of the everlasting "comfort" (R. V.) or
"consolation" (A. V.) that "our Lord Jesus Christ Himself, and God
our Father" give us, and that is certainly never ending. Twice it is
used of the "glory" that those in Christ obtain (II Tim. 2:10). That,
of course, by universal consent is endless. Once it is used of the
"salvation" Christ brings, which is beyond question never ending. Once
(Heb. 9:12) it is used of the "redemption" that Jesus Christ secures
for us by His blood. This redemption is never ending. In fact, the
chief point of contrast in the context in this case is between the
temporary redemption secured by the _constantly repeated_ sacrifices
of the Mosaic ritual and the never ending redemption secured by the
perfect sacrifice of Christ made _once for all_. Once it is used of
the "inheritance" that those who are in Christ receive (Heb. 9:15).
Here again beyond a question it is never ending. Once it is used of
the "_everlasting_ covenant" through Christ's blood contrasted with
the _temporary_ covenant, based on the blood of bulls and goats,
given through Moses. Here again it necessarily and emphatically means
never ending. That is the very point at issue. Once it is used of the
"everlasting kingdom" of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ (II Peter
1:11), and we are told in Luke 1:33, "of His kingdom there shall be no
end." Once it is used of "everlasting gospel" (or good news) and that,
of course, also never ends. Once it is used of the "everlasting God"
(Rom. 16:26) and He certainly endures not merely through long ages,
but without end. Once it is used of the Holy Spirit who is called "the
eternal (or everlasting) Spirit," and He certainly endures, not merely
through long ages, but throughout an absolutely endless eternity. This
covers fifty-nine of the seventy-two times it is used, and in these
fifty-nine instances the thought of endlessness is absolutely necessary
to the sense, and in not a single one of the thirteen remaining times
where it is used is it used of anything that is known to end. If usage
can determine the meaning of any word then certainly the New Testament
use of this word determines it to mean _never ending_, or, as Thayer
defines it, "_without end, never to cease_, everlasting."
Nor is this all, God Himself determines it to mean _never ending_: He
defines it to mean never-ending by specifically using it in contrast
with that which does end. For example, in 2 Cor. 4:18 we read,
+"While we look not on the things which are seen, but the things
which are unseen: for the things which are seen are temporal+
(literally, for a season); +but the things which are not seen are
eternal."+ Here the whole point is that the unseen things in
distinction from the seen which are _for a season_ are for a _never
ending duration_.
But even allowing that the word according to its usage could be used
of that which, though it last throughout an age, or ages, has an end;
even if that were true (which it is not), then the meaning of the word
in any given instance would have to be determined by the context in
which it is found. Now what is the context in the passage which we
are studying? Let us read it again, +"And these shall go away into
eternal punishment: but the righteous into eternal life."+ The
same Greek adjective is used in connection with "punishment" and with
"life." (In the Authorised Version it is differently rendered, but in
the Greek and in the Revised Version it is exactly the same.) Certainly
this qualifying adjective must mean the same in the one half of the
sentence that it means in the other half of the sentence. We must at
least admit that Jesus Christ was an honest man, and He certainly was
too honest to juggle with words: He would not use a word to mean one
thing in one half of a sentence and something utterly different in
the other half. _He evidently sought to convey the impression that
the punishment of the unsaved was of the same duration as the life
of the saved._ No one questions that the life is endless. It would be
the destruction of all our hopes if it were not endless. Therefore,
if we are to deal honestly with our Lord's words, He taught that the
punishment of the unsaved was to be endless. We have exactly the same
reason in God's Word for believing in endless punishment that we have
for believing in endless life. If you give up the one you must give up
the other, or else deal dishonestly with the words of Jesus Christ.
2. We might rest the case here and call it proven, but let us turn to
another passage, Rev. 14:9-11, +"And another angel, a third, followed
them, saying with a great voice, If any man worshipeth the beast and
his image and receiveth a mark on his forehead, or upon his hand, he
also shall drink of the wine of the wrath of God, which is prepared
unmixed in the cup of His anger; and he shall be tormented with fire
and brimstone in the presence of the holy angels, and in the presence
of the Lamb: and the smoke of their torment goeth up for ever and ever;
and they have no rest day and night, they that worship the beast and
his image, and whoso receiveth the mark of his name."+ Here we have
another expression for the duration of the punishment and suffering of
the impenitent, the expression rendered _for ever and ever_. There are
in the Greek two slightly differing forms of expression that are so
translated. The one form of expression literally rendered is "unto the
ages of the ages," the other form is "unto ages of ages." What thought
do these expressions convey. It has been said by those who seek to
escape the force of these words as referring to absolute endlessness,
that the expression "is a Hebraism for the supreme one of its class,"
and as an illustration of the same alleged Hebraism the expressions,
"Lord of Lords" and "Holy of Holies" are cited. But this is not so.
In the first place, the form of neither of the two expressions is
the same; and, in the second place, that is not the meaning of the
expression "The Lord of Lords" or the meaning of the expression "The
Holy of Holies." The expression "Lord of Lords" does not mean merely
_the supreme_ Lord, but one who is Himself Lord of all other Lords,
and this expression "unto the ages of the ages" never means merely
the ages which are the supreme ages in distinction from other ages
(nor as another puts it, the ages which _come out of_ the other ages,
i.e., the closing ages before eternity). The expression according
to its form means ages which are themselves _composed of ages_. It
represents not years tumbling upon years, nor centuries tumbling upon
centuries, but ages tumbling upon ages in endless procession. It is
the strongest possible form of expression for absolute endlessness.
Furthermore, the way to determine conclusively what the expression
means is by considering its usage. Usage is always the decisive thing
in determining the meaning of words and phrases. What is the usage of
these expressions in the book from which we have taken our passage?
These expressions are used twelve times in this book. In eight of the
twelve times they refer to the duration of the existence, or reign,
or glory of God and His Son, Jesus Christ our Lord. Of course, in
these instances it must stand not merely for the supreme ages, or any
individual ages, it must refer to absolute eternity and endlessness.
Once it is used of the duration of the blessed reign of the righteous,
and, of course, here again it refers to an endless eternity: and
in the three remaining instances it is used of the duration of the
torment of the Devil, the Beast, the False Prophet, and the finally
impenitent. It is urged by those who would deny that the expression
means an absolutely endless eternity, that it is used in Rev. 11:15,
where we are told that "the kingdom of the world is become the kingdom
of our Lord, and of His Christ: and He shall reign for ever and ever
(unto the ages of the ages)," and that we are told in 1 Cor. 15:24 that
Christ "shall deliver up the kingdom to God, even the Father"; and
that therefore His kingdom must come to an end, and consequently "for
ever and ever" in this passage cannot mean without end. There are two
answers to this objection, either of which is sufficient. The first is
that the "he" in "he shall reign for ever and ever" in Rev. 11:15, does
not necessarily refer to the Christ, but rather to the Lord Jehovah,
in which case the argument falls to the ground. The second answer is
that while we are taught in I Cor. 15:24, etc., that Jesus Christ
will deliver up His _mediatorial_ kingdom to the Father, nevertheless
we are distinctly taught that He shall rule with the Father, and we
are told in so many words in Luke 1:33 that "of His kingdom _there
shall be no end_," so that even if the "he" in Rev. 11:15 referred
to the Christ and not to the Lord Jehovah, still the statement would
be exactly correct that He, the Christ, was to reign for ever and
ever, i.e., without end. _There is not a single passage in the whole
book in which this expression is used of anything but that which is
absolutely endless._ So the question is answered again and answered
decisively that the conscious suffering of the persistently impenitent
is absolutely endless.
3. Now let us look at another passage, II Thess. 1:7-9: +"The Lord
Jesus shall be revealed from heaven with His mighty angels, in flaming
fire taking vengeance on them that know not God, and that obey not the
gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ: who shall be punished with everlasting
destruction from the presence of the Lord, and from the glory of His
power."+ Here we are told that the punishment of those that know not
God and obey not the gospel is "everlasting _destruction_."
What does "everlasting destruction" mean? In Rev. 17:8, 11 we are told
that the beast goeth into "destruction," so if we can find out where
the beast goes, or into what he goes, we shall know what "destruction"
means in the Bible usage. In Rev. 19:20 we are told that +"the beast
was taken, and with him the false prophet that wrought the signs in
his sight, wherewith he deceived them that had received the mark of
the beast and them that worshipped his image: they two were cast
alive into the lake of fire that burneth with brimstone,"+ so we
see that "_destruction_" is a portion in the lake of fire. And in the
next chapter, Rev. 20:10, we are told that +"The devil that deceived
them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where are also the
beast and the false prophet+ (after having already been there for
one thousand years, see context); +and they shall be tormented day
and night for ever and ever."+ So we see that destruction means
a portion in the lake of fire where its inhabitants are consciously
suffering without cessation _for ever and ever_. It is clear then, from
a comparison of II Thess. 1:7-9 with these passages, that those who
know not God and obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ shall be
punished with never-ending, conscious suffering.
4. Let us look at one more passage, Matt. 25:41 (these again are the
words of the Lord Jesus Himself): +"Then shall he say also unto them
on the left hand, Depart from me, ye cursed, into the eternal fire
which is prepared for the devil and his angels."+ What I wish you
to notice here is that the punishment into which the impenitent are
sent is the "eternal fire" which is "_prepared for the devil and his
angels_." We have an exact description of just what the eternal fire
prepared for the devil and his angels is in the passage read a few
moments ago, Rev. 20:10: +"And the devil that deceived them was cast
into the lake of fire and brimstone where are also the beast and the
false prophet; and they shall be tormented day and night for ever and
ever."+ By a comparison of these two statements we have another
explicit declaration of our Lord that the punishment of the impenitent
is to be a conscious agony, where they are punished without rest day
and night for ever and ever.
From any one of these passages and especially from all taken together,
it is clear that the Scriptures make it as plain as language can make
it that THE FUTURE PUNISHMENT OF THE PERSISTENTLY IMPENITENT IS
ABSOLUTELY ENDLESS.