REMARKS ON A NOTE TO BLACKSTONE'S COMMENTARIES, VOL. I, PAGE 423.

MR. WHITE,--I have read the Note on a passage in Blackstone's

Commentaries, which you gave us in your last, with some surprise. I had

supposed before, that no gentleman of any intelligence could be found

within the four corners of our state, who would seriously undertake to

maintain that our domestic slavery, which is obviously the mere

creature of our own positive law, is so right and proper in itself,

that we are under no obligation whatever to do any thing to remove, or

lessen it, as soon as we can. I had thought, indeed, that it was a

point conceded on all hands, that, wrong in its origin and principle,

it was to be justified, or rather excused, only by the stern necessity

which had imposed it upon us without our consent, and which still

prevented us from throwing it off at once, without a degree of danger

which we could not properly encounter. And, at any rate, I had imagined

that all of us were fully satisfied, by this time, that it was an evil

of such injurious influence upon our moral, political, and civil

interests, that we owed it to ourselves as well as to our subjects, to

reduce, and remove it, as soon, and as fast as possible, consistently

with the rights which we had created or sanctioned by our laws; and

with other considerations which we were bound to regard. In all this,

however, it seems, I was reckoning without my host, the author of the

article before me, who has come forward, at this late hour, to assert

the absolute rectitude and utility of the system, with all the power of

his pen. I do not, however, by any means, feel disposed to question his

perfect right to do so, or to deny for a moment the ingenuity with

which he has labored to maintain his novel position. On the contrary, I

freely acknowledge both; but believing at the same time, as I do, that

his reasonings are false in their principle, and pernicious in their

tendency, I must beg leave to follow his annotations with a few

remarks.

And first, the Annotator, after declaring that he has been impelled to

defend our domestic slavery "by a pious reverence for the institutions

of our forefathers," (a very honorable motive; but strangely

misapplied,) proceeds to say: "It is hardly necessary to expose the

sophistry by which Mr. Blackstone affects to prove that slavery cannot

have had a lawful origin. We do not pretend to trace our title to its

source. We have no call to sit in judgment between the conquered

African and his conqueror. We rest our defence on principles which

legitimate our title, whatever its origin may have been. Yet it may not

be amiss to say a few words to show the fallacy of those plausible and

imposing dogmas, with which we too often suffer ourselves to be talked

down." Now I have always regarded the reasoning of Blackstone on this

point as absolutely unanswerable; and I am happy to know that I am not

alone in my opinion of its weight; for the late venerable Judge Tucker,

I see, in _his_ note upon the same passage, (which I commend to all

your readers,) after quoting it at length, adds these words: "Thus by

the most _clear_, _manly,_ and _convincing_ reasoning, does this

excellent author refute every claim, upon which the practice of slavery

is founded, or by which it has been supposed to be justified, at least,

in modern times." I will not, however, too hastily conclude against the

Annotator's objections; but endeavor to weigh them with due care. He

proceeds thus: "Slavery," says Mr. Blackstone, "cannot originate in

compact, because the transaction excludes the idea of an equivalent."

This is the substance of Blackstone's argument on this head; but does

not give us a full idea of its force. His own statement of it is as

follows: "But secondly, it is said that slavery may begin 'jure civili'

when one man sells himself to another. This, if only meant of contracts

to serve or work for another, is very just; but when applied to strict

slavery, in the sense of the laws of old Rome or modern Barbary, is

also impossible. Every sale implies a price, _a quid pro quo_, an

equivalent given to the seller in lieu of what he transfers to the

buyer; but what equivalent can be given for life and liberty, both of

which (in absolute slavery) are held to be in the master's disposal?

His property also, the very price he seems to receive, devolves _ipso

facto_ to his master, the instant he becomes his slave. In this case,

therefore, the buyer gives nothing, and the seller receives nothing: of

what validity then can a sale be, which destroys the very principles

upon which all sales are founded?" Now this seems to me to be pretty

good logic; and how then does the Annotator answer it? Why he says:

"For an answer to this specious fallacy, I shall content myself by

referring you to the masterly essay of Professor Dew, who has so

clearly exposed it as to leave me nothing to add." This is certainly

judicious, and I cannot but commend him for his prudence, at least, in

thus turning over the trouble of answering such an argument to another.

How this latter gentleman, however, (who must take the compliment _cum

onere_,) can have contrived to expose so clearly "the specious fallacy"

which, it seems, lurks in it, I confess I cannot imagine; as I have not

his "masterly essay" before me. No doubt his exposure must be clever;

but, with all due respect for him, it is plainly impossible that it can

be sound. As at present advised, therefore, I shall stick to

Blackstone, or rather to his reasoning, which, as far as I can see, no

human wit can ever refute.

But the Annotator takes upon himself to grapple with another argument

of Blackstone, which he states in these words: "The commentator further

tells us that slavery cannot lawfully originate in _conquest_, as a

commutation for the right to kill; because this right rests on

necessity, and this necessity plainly does not exist, because the

victor does not kill his adversary, but makes him captive." Now this,

too, I have heretofore taken for very sound logic; and why is it not

perfectly so? Why because, says the Annotator, the conqueror may be in

such a situation that he can only secure himself against the future

hostility of his conquered enemy, by killing, _or_ by enslaving him;

and if he may enslave him himself, then he may hand him over to another

to deport him; which is the mildest mode of doing the thing. Of course,

"the mere captivity of his enemy does not imply the security of the

captor, should he allow his prisoner to go free." And he illustrates

his argument on this point, very prettily, by a figure. "The snared

tiger is in your power. You may kill--you may cage him. _Therefore_,

says Mr. Blackstone, you are under no necessity to do either, and the

noble beast has a fair claim to his liberty." This is a dexterous turn;

but unluckily it proceeds upon a misconception of the true point of

Blackstone's argument, which the Annotator ought to have perceived is

itself an answer to another. The commentator, observe, is answering the

argument of Justinian, that slavery may arise "_jure gentium_," from a

state of war; that is, from the right of a captor to kill his enemy

taken prisoner in battle. "But it is an untrue position," says he,

"when taken generally, that by the law of nature or nations, a man may

kill his enemy; he has only a right to kill him in particular cases, in

cases of absolute necessity for self-defence; and it is plain this

absolute necessity did not subsist, since the victor did not actually

kill him, but made him prisoner." Now the answer is obviously complete,

_so far as regards the point to which it applies_. But, says the

Annotator, it does not settle the question. Perhaps not; nor does

Blackstone say that it does; but it settles the argument of Justinian;

and that is all that, considered as an answer, it was intended, or

could be fairly required, to do.

But why does it not even settle the question? Why, because, says the

Annotator, the conqueror has a right to dispose of his captive in such

a manner as to protect himself from his future hostility; and if he may

not kill, it does not follow that he may not enslave, or transport him,

provided it is necessary for his own security, to dispose of him in

that way. Very true; but this is new matter, which demands perhaps a

new answer; but does not at all invalidate the former answer to the

former argument. And with regard to this new matter too, Blackstone

has, in my opinion, very fairly answered it in advance by what he

immediately adds, but what the Annotator, (inadvertently no doubt,) has

kept back. Thus he adds: "War is itself justifiable only on principles

of self-preservation, and, therefore, it gives no other right over

prisoners, but merely to disable them from doing harm to us, _by

confining their persons_; much less can it give a right to kill,

torture, abuse, plunder, _or even to enslave_, an enemy, _when the war

is over_." To expand this sentence a little. You may, says Blackstone,

by the laws of war, put your enemy _hors de combat_; but you must do

it, by the law of humanity, which is a prior and perpetual part of the

same law of nature, with as little suffering to him as possible,

consistently with your own safety. You may then, I grant you, take him

prisoner, and "_confine his person_," that is, if you cannot venture to

discharge him on his parole; but "_only while the war lasts_;" for the

very foundation of your right to confine him grows out of the war, and

vanishes, of course, with the return of peace.

Now it is obvious, I think, that this argument, duly considered, very

fairly answers, by anticipation, the new matter which the Annotator has

brought into view. For how, I ask, can a temporary right to confine

your captive _durante bello_, become the basis for the transfer of an

absolute right to enslave and deport him? Obviously, if I must even

grant that you can transfer your right of self-defence, or the powers

which it involves, to a neutral, (which I might well question,) you can

only transfer it to the extent to which you possess it yourself. But

your right over your prisoner of war ceases with your war against the

nation, or tribe, to which he belongs. And what right, then, can you

have to hand him over to an assignee, who you know will continue his

dominion over him, (and over his children after him,) without putting

it in your power again to restore him, as in duty bound, upon the

cessation of hostilities, to his family and friends? Or what right can

your assignee have to hold the prisoner under your assignment, one

moment after your right itself has run out? Obviously, none at all. A

holds a slave, who is to serve for the life of B, but to be free

afterwards, and sells him to C in fee simple; what right has C to hold

him after the death of B? Clearly none at all.

There is no escaping from the force of this argument, as far as I can

see, but by maintaining, (as the Annotator indeed seems disposed to

do,) that barbarians can have no peace with each other; but that war

among them must be waged _ad internecionem_, to the point of mutual

extermination, or something equivalent. But this notion is plainly more

barbarous than the practice of the most barbarous tribes that we have

ever read, or heard of; for there is not one of them that does not make

peace, after its fashion; (or did not at least, before our European

slavers taught them a different lesson,) and the act of making peace

obviously implies that there can be, and is, a reasonable security

against future hostilities, without the destruction of either party.

And there is no tribe on earth, I suppose, (or was not before the

slave-trade began,) so absolutely and desperately barbarous as to

insist upon holding its captives after the war is over, and the treaty

of peace fairly ratified by a smoking match, or a dance upon the green.

But the Annotator may yet say, (and does in fact,) that granting all

this, the captor _may have been_ in the dilemma which he has supposed,

_during the war_; that is, he may have been obliged to kill or sell his

captives immediately, to save himself; and he puts a case to illustrate

his argument on this point. "When Colonel Campbell, at the head of a

few militia, stooped from the mountains of Virginia on Carolina, and

bore off the corps of Colonel Ferguson in his pounces, had he been

pursued and overtaken by Tarleton, he must have killed his prisoners.

He could not have held them, and to have enlarged them would have been

to sacrifice the lives of thousands. If, then, he had had no place of

refuge, he might have handed them over to any custody, civilized or

savage, in which they might have been removed from the theatre of the

war." But this case is obviously an imaginary one; and such as could

hardly have occurred in fact. It is remarkable indeed that the

Annotator could find no example in all the romance of real life to suit

the exigence of his argument; but was compelled to fabricate one for

the purpose; or at least to piece out an actual occurrence, by a

supplemental supposition or two of his own; and even then could not

make it serve his turn. Thus Colonel Campbell was _not_ "pursued and

overtaken by Tarleton," and, if he had been, would evidently have had

to fight or surrender, and could have had no time to think about the

supposed alternative of killing his prisoners, or handing them over to

a third party, even if one had been there to receive them. And if you

vary the case a little, so as to make him pursued, but not overtaken;

the time that you will thus give him to hand over his prisoners to

others, will equally suffice to enable him to escape with them himself.

Or if you give him time enough to hand them over; but not enough to

escape with them, (a point of nicety that is hardly conceivable,) then

you also allow the pursuing enemy time enough, in all probability, to

come up and recapture them from their new holders; the very thing to be

avoided. The case, therefore, is evidently altogether fanciful, and

proves nothing. At all events, it is quite clear that such a _nodus_ as

it indicates could not have occurred in any single instance of the sale

of captives for slaves, by any African chief, to the master of a

Spanish ship. At least, it is quite fair to say that, in general, the

mere fact of the captor's having sold his captive, even during the war,

must be _prima facie_, if not conclusive evidence, that he could not

have been in the dilemma imagined, of being obliged to kill, or to

enslave him; for it must be obvious that if he had him so completely in

his power as to be able to bargain, sell, and deliver him to the

slaver, and to receive his money or goods stipulated for him in return;

he could not have been very closely pursued by any barbarous Tarleton

in his rear at the time, and could not have been under any pressing

necessity to do either the one thing, or the other; but, for aught that

appears, might have disposed of his prisoner in some more humane

manner. The _onus probandi_, then, or burden of proof, to show that in

point of fact the captor and vender of any African slave, _was_, in any

case whatever, in the precise predicament supposed, must be on the

Annotator; and can he bear it? Hardly, I suppose. But of what avail,

then, can it be to his argument, that he can _imagine_ or _invent_ a

case, (or a hundred cases, if he likes,) in which there _might have

been_ a lawful origin of slavery, when he evidently cannot show that

any thing like it has ever occurred in fact, from the first beginning

of the slave trade down to the present time?

Thus it appears that the reasoning of Blackstone to prove the

unlawfulness of slavery in its origin, is as strong as we have always

thought it; and very easily defends itself against all that any

ingenuity can urge against it. But say that it is not so; and grant, if

you please, for the sake of argument, that it is all "a specious

fallacy" indeed; what then? Does it follow that slavery _as it exists

in our state_, was just and lawful _in its origin_? By no means. For

say that Mr. Dew has by some miraculous effort of intellect, very

clearly established, in the face of Blackstone's demonstration, (and in

the face of our Bill of Rights also,) that a man _can_ sell himself;

can it be shown that, in point of fact, any single one of the slaves

who were imported into our colony from the year 1620 to the revolution,

_had_ actually sold himself to any one who claimed to be his owner? And

say, also, that the Annotator has proved, against the unanswerable

argument of his author, (and against the plainest principles of the law

of nature,) that a conqueror may justly enslave and export his prisoner

of war in any imaginable case whatever, can it be made to appear that

any one of the Africans brought to our shore was really captured, and

sold, in such a state of things? On the contrary, we have unhappily the

most ample evidence from history, that the whole of our exotic slaves

were either stolen from their native woods, and brought away against

their will, or under false and fraudulent promises which were never

performed; or bought for swords and rum, (fit price for such articles!)

from those who had captured them, not in just and necessary wars of

self-defence, but in predatory hostilities, excited and fomented for

the very purpose, by the worst of pirates, the foulest and most deadly

enemies of the human race.

But passing from this "grave sophistry," as he calls it, of Blackstone,

the Annotator now comes to the consideration of those "principles" on

which he chooses to rest his defence of slavery, and "which," he says,

"legitimate our title, whatever its origin may have been." But can

_any_ principles, I ask, do this? If slavery, as we have seen, is

clearly wrong in its origin; that is, if it is, in itself, a violation

of the law of nature, can any thing "legitimate" it; that is, make it

lawful; by that law? Is not the law of nature, like its author,

immutable, and eternal? And must not that, then, which is against this

law in one age, be equally against it in another, and in every

succeeding age, to the end of time? And if slavery, then, was unlawful

in its origin, must it not be so now, and continue to be so forever?

Or, can the mere lapse of time make it lawful? But that cannot alter

the nature of things. Indeed I may remind the Annotator, that our

municipal law even, while it legalizes slavery, does not allow any

length of time to bar a claim to freedom; and much less, then, can the

law of nature, which has no statute of limitations in its code.

But waiving this, let us see, for a moment, what these principles are

which the Annotator supposes may "legitimate our title, whatever its

origin may have been." What are they? Why, if I understand his view of

the subject, (though it is not, I think, very clearly conveyed,) it is

substantially this. By the decree of God, who has said, that "man shall

eat of the fruit of the earth by the sweat of his face," there must

always be a _working class_ of men, in every country, who must be

satisfied to labor for their victuals and clothes; that being the

natural and impassable stint of their wages. It makes no manner of

odds, therefore, whether the members of this working class be free or

slave: if they are fed and clothed, it is all that they have a right to

expect, or any reason to demand. In point of fact, indeed, the slave of

this class is perhaps rather better off than the freeman; since he is

usually better fed and better clothed; and if he has no hope of any

thing better, he has no fear of any thing worse; and, upon the whole,

has a pretty considerable balance of comfort on his side. It follows

from all this, that his master may, very _legitimately_, hold him down

as a slave, _ad indefinitum_, (that is, till slavery "runs out" of

itself, as he thinks it may in time,) without feeling any qualm of

conscience in the case, or giving himself any trouble whatever about

the matter.

Now all this is doubtless very pretty, and very imposing! It has,

however, I acknowledge, some small mixture of truth in it; and if it

were offered merely by way of apology for our slavery, and as a set-off

against the gross caricatures of it which are sometimes drawn by the

_ultras_ of the other side, and especially by our northern

abolitionists, I should hardly choose to criticise it too nicely.

Indeed I am happy to believe myself, that bad as the system

unquestionably is, it is yet not without some alleviating concomitants,

which materially soften its natural horrors, and may properly serve to

make us endure it with more patience, while we must. But if the

Annotator intends to go further than this, and to prove by these

remarks, (as I understand him to do,) that it is _right_ and _lawful_;

then I must protest against the reasoning as utterly vain and

irrelevant. For, granting all his premises, (though there are certainly

some rather strange and startling propositions among them; yet granting

them all for the sake of argument,) I really cannot perceive how the

conclusion follows from them. For if I grant that there must be _a

working class_, does it follow that we have a right to determine by

compulsion, or by positive law, who shall compose that class? The

decree of Divine Providence, as quoted by the Annotator himself, is

that "_man_," (that is, that all men,) shall work for his bread. What

right, then, has any one portion, or set of men, to slip their own

necks out of "the brazen collar," (as he calls it,) of toil; and fasten

it immoveably and inexorably upon another? Is not this at once evading

and altering, as it were, the counsel of the Creator of all? And if I

grant, also, that the slave is happier than the free laborer, does it

follow that his master may lawfully hold him as such? Does the question

of right depend simply, or at all, upon the degree of happiness which

the laborer enjoys? And have I, then, a right to make _any_ man work

for me, according to my will and pleasure, provided I take care to feed

and clothe him well, and make him as happy as any laborer can expect to

be? Would the Annotator think it exactly right to have such a principle

carried home to himself? But he would perhaps say, that I must not take

quite so great a range as that, but be satisfied to take my man from

"_the working class_." But who compose this working class? All those, I

presume, who have been reduced by the various misfortunes of human

life, to the hard necessity of laboring for others, for their daily

bread. But would any one of this class consent to have the principle of

compulsion brought to bear against him, and surrender forever all hope

and chance of "escaping to the upper air" of a higher class? Certainly

not. Then I must yet further take care, I suppose, to see that my man

whom I am to force to labor for me, on the Annotator's principle, shall

be _black_. So the question of right turns at last upon the color of

the skin. Admirable logic indeed!

But the Annotator thinks that he has found something like an argument

to prove the lawfulness of our slavery, in the text of his author, who

happens to say (on another point,) that, "by the law of England, all

single men between twelve years old and sixty, and married ones under

thirty years of age, and all single women between twelve and forty, not

having any visible livelihood, are _compellable_ by two justices to go

out to service in husbandry, or certain specified trades." "This," says

he, "is as much as to say, they who can only live by labor shall be

made to labor. What more do we? They compel him to choose a master. We

appropriate his labor to a master to whom use and a common interest

attach him, and who is generally the master of his choice. The wages of

both are the same"--to wit, victuals and clothes. And he adds

afterwards, "It is here; on this very point, of the necessity of

forcing those to labor who are unable to live honestly without labor,

that we base the defence of our system." This is pleasant indeed; but

does not the Annotator perceive that he has entirely mistaken _the

principle_ of the English law, which is not, as he states it, that

"they who can only live by labor shall be made to labor;" but that

those who can only live by labor, _and yet will not labor for

themselves_, and are, therefore, likely to become chargeable to the

parish, shall be made to labor _for a time_, and _for wages_, until

they have learned, in this way, to work freely and willingly, for their

own support. But, according to _this_ principle, it is easy to see that

hundreds and thousands of our slaves would be entitled to their freedom

at once; for it cannot be pretended that many of them at least would

not be both able and willing to labor for themselves; and if all, or

the larger part of them, would not, it can only be because their very

slavery itself has incapacitated them for voluntary toil. But can we,

then, plead a defect of theirs which is the consequence of our own act,

to justify that act, in this way? Surely this ground of defence must be

abandoned at once, as wholly untenable, and even dangerous in the

highest degree. At any rate, there is no reason to charge the English

law with countenancing our system. The English law says that a freeman

who can, and will not, work to support himself shall be made to do so;

in order that others may not be called upon to support him. Our law

says that all slaves shall be made to work for their masters, whether

they are able and willing to support themselves, or not. Is the

principle of both laws the same, or entirely different?

But the Annotator finds an excellent reason why our mode of compelling

all slaves to work, should even be preferred to the English one of

compelling freemen to do so in particular cases; and it is curious

enough. I must give it in his own words: "That such compulsion," says

he, "is often necessary, all reason and experience prove. But to a

people jealous of freedom, it is a delicate question whether such a

power can be safely trusted to the municipal authority. To make it

effectual it must be a power dangerous to liberty. It could never be

carried into effect but by a degree of rigor which must bow the spirit

of the laborer, and effectually disqualify him for the political

functions of a sovereign citizen." This is truly excellent. So, then,

it would be dangerous to our liberty to have such a law as that of

England which allows, in certain cases, a freeman who is likely to

become a freebooter, or at least a hanger-on upon the community, to be

compelled to work for himself; and not at all dangerous to that same

liberty to compel one half of our population to work for the other! It

would, forsooth, "bow the spirit of the laborer," (as if the vagabond

had any spirit to bow,) and "disqualify him for the political functions

of a sovereign citizen;" and so to prevent that occasional

disqualification of a few, we must systematically disqualify hundreds

and thousands from performing those same functions of freemen, which

are so important and interesting to the whole body politic! A notable

expedient indeed to preserve the purity and lustre of our liberty, from

all possible danger of destruction or decay!

Upon the whole, I must say that, in my judgment, the Annotator has

failed entirely either to invalidate Blackstone's argument against the

lawfulness of slavery in its origin, or to advance any principles

whatever which can legitimate it, as it exists in our state, at the

present time. I must not, however, by any means, be understood as

meaning to convey the idea that I consider it as altogether

indefensible before the tribunal of an impartial world. On the

contrary, I still hold, as I have always done, that under the peculiar

circumstances in which we find it amongst us, it is justifiable, or

rather excusable, upon the soundest principles of the law of nature;

and, more particularly, upon the principle of necessity and

self-defence. By the law of nature, I may take away the life of another

when I cannot otherwise defend my own. Of course, I may take away his

liberty in a like case; and, _a fortiori_, I may continue my custody of

his person, when he has been committed to my charge, however

wrongfully, by one in whose act I had no participation; and when I

cannot release him without hazarding my own safety, and his too. To

apply this principle to the subject before us; our fathers have

fastened this enormous evil upon us in the beginning without our

concurrence or consent; and we now find and feel it to be too great and

complicated for us to think of removing it at once. To emancipate our

slaves on the spot, would indeed, in all human probability, be followed

by the ruin of both parties; and would at least be an experiment too

tremendous in its aspect, and too uncertain in its issue, to be rashly

tried. In this state of things, therefore, we may, I conceive, most

rightfully and properly, continue to hold them, as we would hold

prisoners of war, whose persons, we have seen, we may lawfully confine

while it is necessary for us to do so in order to protect ourselves

from their hostilities; but whom, at the same time, we must sincerely

and earnestly desire to liberate, and send back to their own country,

as soon as we can.

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