IN THE INTELLIGIBLE STABILITY DOES NOT IMPLY STILLNESS.

But why should we not regard the stability of intelligible things also

as a negation of movement? Because stability is not the privation of

movement; it does not begin to exist when movement ceases, and it does

not hinder it from simultaneous existence with it. In intelligible

being, stability does not imply the cessation of movement of that whose

nature it is to move.[430] On the contrary, so far as intelligible

being is contained in (or, expressed by) stability, it is stable;

so far as it moves, it will ever move; it is therefore stable by

stability, and movable by movement. The body, however, is no doubt

moved by movement, but it rests only in the absence of movement, when

it is deprived of the movement that it ought to have. Besides, what

would stability be supposed to imply (if it were supposed to exist

in sense-objects)? When somebody passes from sickness to health, he

enters on convalescence. What kind of stillness shall we oppose to

convalescence? Shall we oppose to it that condition from which that man

had just issued? That state was sickness, and not stability. Shall we

oppose to it the state in which that man has just entered? That state

is health, which is not identical with stability. To say that sickness

and health are each of them a sort of stability, is to consider

sickness and health as species of stability, which is absurd. Further,

if it were said that stability is an accident of health, it would

result that before stability health would not be health. As to such

arguments, let each reason according to his fancy!

Plotinos: Complete Works, v. 3 In Chronological Order, Grouped in Four Periods · 第 405 / 442 题