To this natural and important question, Dr. Kennicott answers:--

The original word for a _sign_ means also a _miracle._ And as God had

offered _Ahaz_ a miracle to be _then_ performed, which had been

refused, God Himself promises to _the house of David_ a miracle which

should be performed, not then, but _afterwards._ But the word

signifies, not only something done at present, to induce a belief of

something future, but also something to be done afterwards, declared

beforehand in confirmation of something foretold.

Thus, when God commanded Moses to go from the wilderness into Egypt

to demand the dismission of his brethren, God assures him of success,

and tells him: "This shall be _a sign_ unto thee; when thou hast

brought forth the people, ye shall serve God upon this mountain."

And thus, when the Assyrians were marching against Jerusalem in the

days of Hezekiah, Isaiah is again commanded to declare that the city

shall not be taken; and after saying, "This shall be _a sign_ unto

you," he specifies several particulars which were all future.[1]

If then a thing, at all future, may be declared as _a sign,_ it makes

no difference whether the thing be future by three years or three

hundred, provided that one circumstance be observed--which is, that

the man, or body of men, to whom the fact is declared to be a sign

shall exist to see the thing accomplished. This was manifestly the

case here. For not only Ahaz, to whom the second prophecy was

delivered, saw that fulfilled as to the two kings his enemies, but

also the house of David, to whom the first prophecy as addressed, saw

_that_ fulfilled in JESUS CHRIST.

The Preacher's Complete Homiletic Commentary on the Books of the Bible, Volume 15 (of 32) The Preacher's Complete Homiletic Commentary on the Book of the Prophet Isaiah, Volume I · 第 252 / 808 题