It will hardly be claimed at this day, that the passages in the
Bible upholding slavery, polygamy, war, and religious persecution are
evidences of the inspiration of that book. Suppose that there had been
nothing in the Old Testament upholding these crimes would any modern
Christian suspect that it was not inspired on account of that omission?
Suppose that there had been nothing in the Old Testament but laws in
favor of these crimes, would any intelligent Christian now contend that
it was the work of the true God?