"The authors of the authorised version advisedly inserted _is_
instead of _let_, to forward their own new (?) doctrines."
Doubtless whatever the translators did was done "_advisedly_;" but what
proof has CEPHAS that they adopted the present version _merely_ to serve
their own "interest?" Some verb _must_ be supplied, and either form will
suit the passage. It is true that Hammond prefers _let_ to _is_, but
there is as great authority on the other side.