WHAT IS THE MEANING OF "DELIGHTED," AS SOMETIMES USED BY SHAKSPEARE.

I wish to call attention to the peculiar use of a word, or rather to a

peculiar word, in Shakspeare, which I do not recollect to have met with

in any other writer. I say a "peculiar word," because, although the verb

_To delight_ is well known, and of general use, the word, the same in

form, to which I refer, is not only of different meaning, but, as I

conceive, of distinct derivation the non-recognition of which has led to

a misconception of the meaning of one of the finest passages in

Shakspeare. The first passage in which it occurs, that I shall quote, is

the well known one from _Measure for Measure_:

"Ay, but to die, and go we know not where;

To lie in cold obstruction, and to rot,

This sensible warm motion to become

A kneaded clod; and the _delighted_ spirit

To bathe in fiery floods, or to reside

In thrilling regions of thick-ribbed ice;

To be imprison'd in the viewless winds

And blown with restless violence round about

The pendant world." Act iii. Sc. 1.

Now, if we examine the construction of this passage, we shall find that

it appears to have been the object of the writer to separate, and place

in juxtaposition with each other, the conditions of the body and the

spirit, each being imagined under circumstances to excite repulsion or

terror in a sentient being. The mind sees the former lying in "cold

obstruction," rotting, changed from a "sensible warm motion" to a

"kneaded clod," every circumstance leaving the impression of dull, dead

weight, deprived of force and motion. The spirit, on the other hand, is

imagined under circumstances that give the most vivid picture

conceivable of utter powerlessness:

"Imprison'd in the viewless winds,

And blown with restless violence round about

The pendant world."

To call the spirit here "delighted," in our sense of the term, would be

absurd; and no explanation of the passage in this sense, however

ingenious, is intelligible. That it is intended to represent the spirit

simply as _lightened_, made light, relieved from the weight of matter, I

am convinced, and this is my view of the meaning of the word in the

present instance.

_Delight_ is naturally formed by the participle _de_ and _light_, to

make light, in the same way as "debase," to make base, "defile," to make

foul. The analogy is not quite so perfect in such words as "define,"

"defile" (file), "deliver," "depart," &c.; yet they all may be

considered of the same class. The last of these is used with us only in

the sense of _to go away_; in Shakspeare's time (and Shakspeare so uses

it) it meant also _to part_, or _part with_. A correspondent of Mr.

Knight's suggests {114} for the word _delight_ in this passage, also, a

new derivation; using _de_ as a negation, and _light (lux), delighted_,

removed from the regions of light. This is impossible; if we look at the

context we shall see that it not only contemplated no such thing, but

that it is distinctly opposed to it.

I am less inclined to entertain any doubt of the view I have taken being

correct, from the confirmation it receives in another passage of

Shakspeare, which runs as follows:

"If virtue no _delighted_ beauty lack,

Your son-in-law shows far more fair than black."

_Othello_, Act i. Sc. 3.

Passing by the cool impertinence of one editor, who asserts that

Shakspeare frequently used the past for the present participle, and the

almost equally cool correction of another, who places the explanatory

note "*delightful" at the bottom of the page, I will merely remark that

the two latest editors of Shakspeare, having apparently nothing to say

on the subject, have very wisely said nothing. Yet, as we understand the

term "delighted," the passage surely needs explanation. We cannot

suppose that Shakspeare used epithets so weakening as "delighting" or

"delightful." The meaning of the passage would appear to be this: If

virtue be not wanting in beauty--such beauty as can belong to virtue,

not physical, but of a higher kind, and freed from all material

elements--then your son-in-law, black though he is, shows far more fair

than black, possessing, in fact, this _abstract_ kind of beauty to that

degree that his colour is forgotten. In short, "delighted" here seems to

mean, _lightened_ of all that is gross or unessential.

There is yet another instance in Cymbeline, which seems to bear a

similar construction:

"Whom best I love, I cross: to make my gifts

The more delay'd, _delighted_."

Act v. Sc. 4.

That is, "the _more_ delighted;" the longer held back, the better worth

having; lightened of whatever might detract from their value, that is,

refined or purified. In making the remark here, that "delighted" refers

not to the recipient nor to the giver, but to the gifts, I pass by the

nonsense that the greatest master of the English language did not heed

the distinction between the past and the present participles, as not

worth a second thought.

The word appears to have had a distinct value of its own, and is not to

be explained by any other single word. If this be so, it could hardly

have been coined by Shakspeare. Though, possibly, it may never have been

much used, perhaps some of your correspondents may be able to furnish

other instances from other writers.

Notes and Queries, Number 38, July 20, 1850 · 第 4 / 71 题