THIRD ARTICLE [I-II, Q. 112, Art. 3]

Whether Grace Is Necessarily Given to Whoever Prepares Himself for

It, or to Whoever Does What He Can?

Objection 1: It would seem that grace is necessarily given to whoever

prepares himself for grace, or to whoever does what he can, because,

on Rom. 5:1, "Being justified . . . by faith, let us have peace,"

etc. the gloss says: "God welcomes whoever flies to Him, otherwise

there would be injustice with Him." But it is impossible for

injustice to be with God. Therefore it is impossible for God not to

welcome whoever flies to Him. Hence he receives grace of necessity.

Obj. 2: Further, Anselm says (De Casu Diaboli. iii) that the reason

why God does not bestow grace on the devil, is that he did not wish,

nor was he prepared, to receive it. But if the cause be removed, the

effect must needs be removed also. Therefore, if anyone is willing to

receive grace it is bestowed on them of necessity.

Obj. 3: Further, good is diffusive of itself, as appears from

Dionysius (Div. Nom. iv). Now the good of grace is better than the

good of nature. Hence, since natural forms necessarily come to

disposed matter, much more does it seem that grace is necessarily

bestowed on whoever prepares himself for grace.

_On the contrary,_ Man is compared to God as clay to the potter,

according to Jer. 18:6: "As clay is in the hand of the potter, so are

you in My hand." But however much the clay is prepared, it does not

necessarily receive its shape from the potter. Hence, however much a

man prepares himself, he does not necessarily receive grace from God.

_I answer that,_ As stated above (A. 2), man's preparation for grace

is from God, as Mover, and from the free-will, as moved. Hence the

preparation may be looked at in two ways: first, as it is from

free-will, and thus there is no necessity that it should obtain

grace, since the gift of grace exceeds every preparation of human

power. But it may be considered, secondly, as it is from God the

Mover, and thus it has a necessity--not indeed of coercion, but of

infallibility--as regards what it is ordained to by God, since God's

intention cannot fail, according to the saying of Augustine in his

book on the _Predestination of the Saints_ (De Dono Persev. xiv) that

"by God's good gifts whoever is liberated, is most certainly

liberated." Hence if God intends, while moving, that the one whose

heart He moves should attain to grace, he will infallibly attain to

it, according to John 6:45: "Every one that hath heard of the Father,

and hath learned, cometh to Me."

Reply Obj. 1: This gloss is speaking of such as fly to God by a

meritorious act of their free-will, already _informed_ with grace;

for if they did not receive grace, it would be against the justice

which He Himself established. Or if it refers to the movement of

free-will before grace, it is speaking in the sense that man's flight

to God is by a Divine motion, which ought not, in justice, to fail.

Reply Obj. 2: The first cause of the defect of grace is on our part;

but the first cause of the bestowal of grace is on God's according to

Osee 13:9: "Destruction is thy own, O Israel; thy help is only in Me."

Reply Obj. 3: Even in natural things, the form does not necessarily

ensue the disposition of the matter, except by the power of the agent

that causes the disposition.

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Summa Theologica, Part I-II (Pars Prima Secundae) From the Complete American Edition · 第 722 / 746 题