FIFTH ARTICLE [I-II, Q. 96, Art. 5]

Whether All Are Subject to the Law?

Objection 1: It would seem that not all are subject to the law. For

those alone are subject to a law for whom a law is made. But the

Apostle says (1 Tim. 1:9): "The law is not made for the just man."

Therefore the just are not subject to the law.

Obj. 2: Further, Pope Urban says [*Decretals. caus. xix, qu. 2]: "He

that is guided by a private law need not for any reason be bound by

the public law." Now all spiritual men are led by the private law of

the Holy Ghost, for they are the sons of God, of whom it is said

(Rom. 8:14): "Whosoever are led by the Spirit of God, they are the

sons of God." Therefore not all men are subject to human law.

Obj. 3: Further, the jurist says [*Pandect. Justin. i, ff., tit. 3,

De Leg. et Senat.] that "the sovereign is exempt from the laws." But

he that is exempt from the law is not bound thereby. Therefore not

all are subject to the law.

_On the contrary,_ The Apostle says (Rom. 13:1): "Let every soul be

subject to the higher powers." But subjection to a power seems to

imply subjection to the laws framed by that power. Therefore all men

should be subject to human law.

_I answer that,_ As stated above (Q. 90, AA. 1, 2; A. 3, ad 2), the

notion of law contains two things: first, that it is a rule of human

acts; secondly, that it has coercive power. Wherefore a man may be

subject to law in two ways. First, as the regulated is subject to the

regulator: and, in this way, whoever is subject to a power, is

subject to the law framed by that power. But it may happen in two

ways that one is not subject to a power. In one way, by being

altogether free from its authority: hence the subjects of one city or

kingdom are not bound by the laws of the sovereign of another city or

kingdom, since they are not subject to his authority. In another way,

by being under a yet higher law; thus the subject of a proconsul

should be ruled by his command, but not in those matters in which the

subject receives his orders from the emperor: for in these matters,

he is not bound by the mandate of the lower authority, since he is

directed by that of a higher. In this way, one who is simply subject

to a law, may not be subject thereto in certain matters, in respect

of which he is ruled by a higher law.

Secondly, a man is said to be subject to a law as the coerced is

subject to the coercer. In this way the virtuous and righteous are

not subject to the law, but only the wicked. Because coercion and

violence are contrary to the will: but the will of the good is in

harmony with the law, whereas the will of the wicked is discordant

from it. Wherefore in this sense the good are not subject to the law,

but only the wicked.

Reply Obj. 1: This argument is true of subjection by way of coercion:

for, in this way, "the law is not made for the just men": because

"they are a law to themselves," since they "show the work of the law

written in their hearts," as the Apostle says (Rom. 2:14, 15).

Consequently the law does not enforce itself upon them as it does on

the wicked.

Reply Obj. 2: The law of the Holy Ghost is above all law framed by

man: and therefore spiritual men, in so far as they are led by the

law of the Holy Ghost, are not subject to the law in those matters

that are inconsistent with the guidance of the Holy Ghost.

Nevertheless the very fact that spiritual men are subject to law, is

due to the leading of the Holy Ghost, according to 1 Pet. 2:13: "Be

ye subject . . . to every human creature for God's sake."

Reply Obj. 3: The sovereign is said to be "exempt from the law," as

to its coercive power; since, properly speaking, no man is coerced by

himself, and law has no coercive power save from the authority of the

sovereign. Thus then is the sovereign said to be exempt from the law,

because none is competent to pass sentence on him, if he acts against

the law. Wherefore on Ps. 50:6: "To Thee only have I sinned," a gloss

says that "there is no man who can judge the deeds of a king." But as

to the directive force of law, the sovereign is subject to the law by

his own will, according to the statement (Extra, De Constit. cap. Cum

omnes) that "whatever law a man makes for another, he should keep

himself. And a wise authority [*Dionysius Cato, Dist. de Moribus]

says: 'Obey the law that thou makest thyself.'" Moreover the Lord

reproaches those who "say and do not"; and who "bind heavy burdens

and lay them on men's shoulders, but with a finger of their own they

will not move them" (Matt. 23:3, 4). Hence, in the judgment of God,

the sovereign is not exempt from the law, as to its directive force;

but he should fulfil it to his own free-will and not of constraint.

Again the sovereign is above the law, in so far as, when it is

expedient, he can change the law, and dispense in it according to

time and place.

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Summa Theologica, Part I-II (Pars Prima Secundae) From the Complete American Edition · 第 621 / 746 题