Whether There Is but One Divine Law?
Objection 1: It would seem that there is but one Divine law. Because,
where there is one king in one kingdom there is but one law. Now the
whole of mankind is compared to God as to one king, according to Ps.
46:8: "God is the King of all the earth." Therefore there is but one
Divine law.
Obj. 2: Further, every law is directed to the end which the
lawgiver intends for those for whom he makes the law. But God intends
one and the same thing for all men; since according to 1 Tim. 2:4: "He
will have all men to be saved, and to come to the knowledge of the
truth." Therefore there is but one Divine law.
Obj. 3: Further, the Divine law seems to be more akin to the
eternal law, which is one, than the natural law, according as the
revelation of grace is of a higher order than natural knowledge.
Therefore much more is the Divine law but one.
_On the contrary,_ The Apostle says (Heb. 7:12): "The priesthood being
translated, it is necessary that a translation also be made of the
law." But the priesthood is twofold, as stated in the same passage,
viz. the levitical priesthood, and the priesthood of Christ. Therefore
the Divine law is twofold, namely the Old Law and the New Law.
_I answer that,_ As stated in the First Part (Q. 30, A. 3),
distinction is the cause of number. Now things may be distinguished
in two ways. First, as those things that are altogether specifically
different, e.g. a horse and an ox. Secondly, as perfect and imperfect
in the same species, e.g. a boy and a man: and in this way the Divine
law is divided into Old and New. Hence the Apostle (Gal. 3:24, 25)
compares the state of man under the Old Law to that of a child "under
a pedagogue"; but the state under the New Law, to that of a full
grown man, who is "no longer under a pedagogue."
Now the perfection and imperfection of these two laws is to be taken
in connection with the three conditions pertaining to law, as stated
above. For, in the first place, it belongs to law to be directed to
the common good as to its end, as stated above (Q. 90, A. 2). This
good may be twofold. It may be a sensible and earthly good; and to
this, man was directly ordained by the Old Law: wherefore, at the
very outset of the law, the people were invited to the earthly
kingdom of the Chananaeans (Ex. 3:8, 17). Again it may be an
intelligible and heavenly good: and to this, man is ordained by the
New Law. Wherefore, at the very beginning of His preaching, Christ
invited men to the kingdom of heaven, saying (Matt. 4:17): "Do
penance, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand." Hence Augustine says
(Contra Faust. iv) that "promises of temporal goods are contained in
the Old Testament, for which reason it is called old; but the promise
of eternal life belongs to the New Testament."
Secondly, it belongs to the law to direct human acts according to the
order of righteousness (A. 4): wherein also the New Law surpasses the
Old Law, since it directs our internal acts, according to Matt. 5:20:
"Unless your justice abound more than that of the Scribes and
Pharisees, you shall not enter into the kingdom of heaven." Hence the
saying that "the Old Law restrains the hand, but the New Law controls
the mind" ( Sentent. iii, D, xl).
Thirdly, it belongs to the law to induce men to observe its
commandments. This the Old Law did by the fear of punishment: but the
New Law, by love, which is poured into our hearts by the grace of
Christ, bestowed in the New Law, but foreshadowed in the Old. Hence
Augustine says (Contra Adimant. Manich. discip. xvii) that "there is
little difference [*The 'little difference' refers to the Latin words
'timor' and 'amor'--'fear' and 'love.'] between the Law and the
Gospel--fear and love."
Reply Obj. 1: As the father of a family issues different commands to
the children and to the adults, so also the one King, God, in His one
kingdom, gave one law to men, while they were yet imperfect, and
another more perfect law, when, by the preceding law, they had been
led to a greater capacity for Divine things.
Reply Obj. 2: The salvation of man could not be achieved otherwise
than through Christ, according to Acts 4:12: "There is no other name
. . . given to men, whereby we must be saved." Consequently the law
that brings all to salvation could not be given until after the
coming of Christ. But before His coming it was necessary to give to
the people, of whom Christ was to be born, a law containing certain
rudiments of righteousness unto salvation, in order to prepare them
to receive Him.
Reply Obj. 3: The natural law directs man by way of certain general
precepts, common to both the perfect and the imperfect: wherefore it
is one and the same for all. But the Divine law directs man also in
certain particular matters, to which the perfect and imperfect do not
stand in the same relation. Hence the necessity for the Divine law to
be twofold, as already explained.
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