Whether Venial Sin Is Fittingly Condivided with Mortal Sin?
Objection 1: It would seem that venial sin is unfittingly condivided
with mortal sin. For Augustine says (Contra Faust. xxii, 27): "Sin is
a word, deed or desire contrary to the eternal law." But the fact of
being against the eternal law makes a sin to be mortal. Consequently
every sin is mortal. Therefore venial sin is not condivided with
mortal sin.
Obj. 2: Further, the Apostle says (1 Cor. 10:31): "Whether you eat or
drink, or whatever else you do; do all to the glory of God." Now
whoever sins breaks this commandment, because sin is not done for
God's glory. Consequently, since to break a commandment is to commit
a mortal sin, it seems that whoever sins, sins mortally.
Obj. 3: Further, whoever cleaves to a thing by love, cleaves either
as enjoying it, or as using it, as Augustine states (De Doctr.
Christ. i, 3, 4). But no person, in sinning, cleaves to a mutable
good as using it: because he does not refer it to that good which
gives us happiness, which, properly speaking, is to use, according to
Augustine (De Doctr. Christ. i, 3, 4). Therefore whoever sins enjoys
a mutable good. Now "to enjoy what we should use is human
perverseness," as Augustine again says (Qq. lxxxiii, qu. 30).
Therefore, since "perverseness" [*The Latin 'pervertere' means to
overthrow, to destroy, hence 'perversion' of God's law is a mortal
sin.] denotes a mortal sin, it seems that whoever sins, sins mortally.
Obj. 4: Further, whoever approaches one term, from that very fact
turns away from the opposite. Now whoever sins, approaches a mutable
good, and, consequently turns away from the immutable good, so that
he sins mortally. Therefore venial sin is unfittingly condivided with
mortal sin.
_On the contrary,_ Augustine says (Tract. xli in Joan.), that "a
crime is one that merits damnation, and a venial sin, one that does
not." But a crime denotes a mortal sin. Therefore venial sin is
fittingly condivided with mortal sin.
_I answer that,_ Certain terms do not appear to be mutually opposed,
if taken in their proper sense, whereas they are opposed if taken
metaphorically: thus "to smile" is not opposed to "being dry"; but if
we speak of the smiling meadows when they are decked with flowers and
fresh with green hues this is opposed to drought. In like manner if
mortal be taken literally as referring to the death of the body, it
does not imply opposition to venial, nor belong to the same genus.
But if mortal be taken metaphorically, as applied to sin, it is
opposed to that which is venial.
For sin, being a sickness of the soul, as stated above (Q. 71, A. 1,
ad 3; Q. 72, A. 5; Q. 74, A. 9, ad 2), is said to be mortal by
comparison with a disease, which is said to be mortal, through
causing an irreparable defect consisting in the corruption of a
principle, as stated above (Q. 72, A. 5). Now the principle of the
spiritual life, which is a life in accord with virtue, is the order
to the last end, as stated above (Q. 72, A. 5; Q. 87, A. 3): and if
this order be corrupted, it cannot be repaired by any intrinsic
principle, but by the power of God alone, as stated above (Q. 87, A.
3), because disorders in things referred to the end, are repaired
through the end, even as an error about conclusions can be repaired
through the truth of the principles. Hence the defect of order to the
last end cannot be repaired through something else as a higher
principle, as neither can an error about principles. Wherefore such
sins are called mortal, as being irreparable. On the other hand, sins
which imply a disorder in things referred to the end, the order to
the end itself being preserved, are reparable. These sins are called
venial: because a sin receives its acquittal (_veniam_) when the debt
of punishment is taken away, and this ceases when the sin ceases, as
explained above (Q. 87, A. 6).
Accordingly, mortal and venial are mutually opposed as reparable and
irreparable: and I say this with reference to the intrinsic
principle, but not to the Divine power, which can repair all
diseases, whether of the body or of the soul. Therefore venial sin is
fittingly condivided with mortal sin.
Reply Obj. 1: The division of sin into venial and mortal is not a
division of a genus into its species which have an equal share of the
generic nature: but it is the division of an analogous term into its
parts, of which it is predicated, of the one first, and of the other
afterwards. Consequently the perfect notion of sin, which Augustine
gives, applies to mortal sin. On the other hand, venial sin is called
a sin, in reference to an imperfect notion of sin, and in relation to
mortal sin: even as an accident is called a being, in relation to
substance, in reference to the imperfect notion of being. For it is
not _against_ the law, since he who sins venially neither does what
the law forbids, nor omits what the law prescribes to be done; but he
acts _beside_ the law, through not observing the mode of reason,
which the law intends.
Reply Obj. 2: This precept of the Apostle is affirmative, and so it
does not bind for all times. Consequently everyone who does not
actually refer all his actions to the glory of God, does not
therefore act against this precept. In order, therefore, to avoid
mortal sin each time that one fails actually to refer an action to
God's glory, it is enough to refer oneself and all that one has to
God habitually. Now venial sin excludes only actual reference of the
human act to God's glory, and not habitual reference: because it does
not exclude charity, which refers man to God habitually. Therefore it
does not follow that he who sins venially, sins mortally.
Reply Obj. 3: He that sins venially, cleaves to temporal good, not as
enjoying it, because he does not fix his end in it, but as using it,
by referring it to God, not actually but habitually.
Reply Obj. 4: Mutable good is not considered to be a term in
contraposition to the immutable good, unless one's end is fixed
therein: because what is referred to the end has not the character of
finality.
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