Whether God Is a Cause of Sin?
Objection 1: It would seem that God is a cause of sin. For the
Apostle says of certain ones (Rom. 1:28): "God delivered them up to a
reprobate sense, to do those things which are not right [Douay:
'convenient']," and a gloss comments on this by saying that "God works
in men's hearts, by inclining their wills to whatever He wills,
whether to good or to evil." Now sin consists in doing what is not
right, and in having a will inclined to evil. Therefore God is to man
a cause of sin.
Obj. 2: Further, it is written (Wis. 14:11): "The creatures of God
are turned to an abomination; and a temptation to the souls of men."
But a temptation usually denotes a provocation to sin. Since
therefore creatures were made by God alone, as was established in the
First Part (Q. 44, A. 1), it seems that God is a cause of sin, by
provoking man to sin.
Obj. 3: Further, the cause of the cause is the cause of the effect.
Now God is the cause of the free-will, which itself is the cause of
sin. Therefore God is the cause of sin.
Obj. 4: Further, every evil is opposed to good. But it is not
contrary to God's goodness that He should cause the evil of
punishment; since of this evil it is written (Isa. 45:7) that God
creates evil, and (Amos 3:6): "Shall there be evil in the city which
God [Vulg.: 'the Lord'] hath not done?" Therefore it is not
incompatible with God's goodness that He should cause the evil of
fault.
_On the contrary,_ It is written (Wis. 11:25): "Thou . . . hatest
none of the things which Thou hast made." Now God hates sin,
according to Wis. 14:9: "To God the wicked and his wickedness are
hateful." Therefore God is not a cause of sin.
_I answer that,_ Man is, in two ways, a cause either of his own or of
another's sin. First, directly, namely by inclining his or another's
will to sin; secondly, indirectly, namely by not preventing someone
from sinning. Hence (Ezech. 3:18) it is said to the watchman: "If
thou say not to the wicked: 'Thou shalt surely die' [*Vulg.: "If,
when I say to the wicked, 'Thou shalt surely die,' thou declare it
not to him."] . . . I will require his blood at thy hand." Now God
cannot be directly the cause of sin, either in Himself or in another,
since every sin is a departure from the order which is to God as the
end: whereas God inclines and turns all things to Himself as to their
last end, as Dionysius states (Div. Nom. i): so that it is impossible
that He should be either to Himself or to another the cause of
departing from the order which is to Himself. Therefore He cannot be
directly the cause of sin. In like manner neither can He cause sin
indirectly. For it happens that God does not give some the
assistance, whereby they may avoid sin, which assistance were He to
give, they would not sin. But He does all this according to the order
of His wisdom and justice, since He Himself is Wisdom and Justice: so
that if someone sin it is not imputable to Him as though He were the
cause of that sin; even as a pilot is not said to cause the wrecking
of the ship, through not steering the ship, unless he cease to steer
while able and bound to steer. It is therefore evident that God is
nowise a cause of sin.
Reply Obj. 1: As to the words of the Apostle, the solution is clear
from the text. For if God delivered some up to a reprobate sense, it
follows that they already had a reprobate sense, so as to do what was
not right. Accordingly He is said to deliver them up to a reprobate
sense, in so far as He does not hinder them from following that
reprobate sense, even as we are said to expose a person to danger if
we do not protect him. The saying of Augustine (De Grat. et Lib. Arb.
xxi, whence the gloss quoted is taken) to the effect that "God
inclines men's wills to good and evil," is to be understood as
meaning that He inclines the will directly to good; and to evil, in
so far as He does not hinder it, as stated above. And yet even this
is due as being deserved through a previous sin.
Reply Obj. 2: When it is said the "creatures of God are turned 'to'
an abomination, and a temptation to the souls of men," the
preposition "to" does not denote causality but sequel [*This is made
clear by the Douay Version: the Latin "factae sunt in abominationem"
admits of the translation "were made to be an abomination," which
might imply causality.]; for God did not make the creatures that they
might be an evil to man; this was the result of man's folly,
wherefore the text goes on to say, "and a snare to the feet of the
unwise," who, to wit, in their folly, use creatures for a purpose
other than that for which they were made.
Reply Obj. 3: The effect which proceeds from the middle cause,
according as it is subordinate to the first cause, is reduced to that
first cause; but if it proceed from the middle cause, according as it
goes outside the order of the first cause, it is not reduced to that
first cause: thus if a servant do anything contrary to his master's
orders, it is not ascribed to the master as though he were the cause
thereof. In like manner sin, which the free-will commits against the
commandment of God, is not attributed to God as being its cause.
Reply Obj. 4: Punishment is opposed to the good of the person
punished, who is thereby deprived of some good or other: but fault is
opposed to the good of subordination to God; and so it is directly
opposed to the Divine goodness; consequently there is no comparison
between fault and punishment.
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