THIRD ARTICLE [I-II, Q. 33, Art. 3]

Whether Pleasure Hinders the Use of Reason?

Objection 1: It would seem that pleasure does not hinder the use of

reason. Because repose facilitates very much the due use of reason:

wherefore the Philosopher says (Phys. vii, 3) that "while we sit and

rest, the soul is inclined to knowledge and prudence"; and it is

written (Wis. 8:16): "When I go into my house, I shall repose myself

with her," i.e. wisdom. But pleasure is a kind of repose. Therefore

it helps rather than hinders the use of reason.

Obj. 2: Further, things which are not in the same subject though they

be contraries, do not hinder one another. But pleasure is in the

appetitive faculty, while the use of reason is in the apprehensive

power. Therefore pleasure does not hinder the use of reason.

Obj. 3: Further, that which is hindered by another, seems to be

moved, as it were, thereby. But the use of an apprehensive power

moves pleasure rather than is moved by it: because it is the cause of

pleasure. Therefore pleasure does not hinder the use of reason.

_On the contrary,_ The Philosopher says (Ethic. vi, 5), that

"pleasure destroys the estimate of prudence."

_I answer that,_ As is stated in _Ethic._ x, 5, "appropriate

pleasures increase activity . . . whereas pleasures arising from

other sources are impediments to activity." Accordingly there is a

certain pleasure that is taken in the very act of reason, as when one

takes pleasure in contemplating or in reasoning: and such pleasure

does not hinder the act of reason, but helps it; because we are more

attentive in doing that which gives us pleasure, and attention

fosters activity.

On the other hand bodily pleasures hinder the use of reason in three

ways. First, by distracting the reason. Because, as we have just

observed, we attend much to that which pleases us. Now when the

attention is firmly fixed on one thing, it is either weakened in

respect of other things, or it is entirely withdrawn from them; and

thus if the bodily pleasure be great, either it entirely hinders the

use of reason, by concentrating the mind's attention on itself; or

else it hinders it considerably. Secondly, by being contrary to

reason. Because some pleasures, especially those that are in excess,

are contrary to the order of reason: and in this sense the

Philosopher says that "bodily pleasures destroy the estimate of

prudence, but not the speculative estimate," to which they are not

opposed, "for instance that the three angles of a triangle are

together equal to two right angles." In the first sense, however,

they hinder both estimates. Thirdly, by fettering the reason: in so

far as bodily pleasure is followed by a certain alteration in the

body, greater even than in the other passions, in proportion as the

appetite is more vehemently affected towards a present than towards

an absent thing. Now such bodily disturbances hinder the use of

reason; as may be seen in the case of drunkards, in whom the use of

reason is fettered or hindered.

Reply Obj. 1: Bodily pleasure implies indeed repose of the appetite

in the object of pleasure; which repose is sometimes contrary to

reason; but on the part of the body it always implies alteration.

And in respect of both points, it hinders the use of reason.

Reply Obj. 2: The powers of the appetite and of apprehension are

indeed distinct parts, but belonging to the one soul. Consequently

when the soul is very intent on the action of one part, it is

hindered from attending to a contrary act of the other part.

Reply Obj. 3: The use of reason requires the due use of the

imagination and of the other sensitive powers, which are exercised

through a bodily organ. Consequently alteration in the body hinders

the use of reason, because it hinders the act of the imagination

and of the other sensitive powers.

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Summa Theologica, Part I-II (Pars Prima Secundae) From the Complete American Edition · 第 236 / 746 题