And the elder said this also: Mark, having become the interpreter

of Peter, wrote down accurately everything that he remembered,

without however recording in order what was either said or done by

Christ. For neither did he hear the Lord, nor did he follow Him;

but afterwards, as I said, [attended] Peter, who adapted His

instructions to the needs [of his hearers] but had no design of

giving a connected account of the Lord's oracles [_or_ discourses]

([Greek: all' ouch hôsper suntaxin tôn kuriakôn poioumenos logiôn]

_or_ [Greek: lôgon]). So then Mark made no mistake, while he thus

wrote down some things as he remembered them; for he made it his

one care not to omit anything that he heard, or to set down any

false statement therein.

Eusebius introduces this passage by a statement that it 'refers to Mark,

the writer of the Gospel;' and the authority whom Papias here quotes is

apparently the Presbyter John, who has been mentioned immediately

before.

Now it will be plain, I think, to any reader of common sense, that

Papias is giving an account of the circumstances under which the

Evangelical narrative in question was composed. There were two phenomena

in it which seemed to him to call for explanation. In the first place,

it is not a _complete_ narrative. In the second place, the events are

not recorded in _strict chronological order_. These two phenomena are

explained by St Mark's position and opportunities, which were

necessarily limited. His work was composed from reminiscences of St

Peter's preaching; and, as this preaching was necessarily fragmentary

and adapted to the immediate requirements of his hearers (the preacher

having no intention of giving a continuous narrative), the writer could

not possess either the materials for a complete account or the knowledge

for an accurate chronological arrangement. Papias obviously has before

him some other Gospel narrative or narratives, which contained sayings

or doings of Christ not recorded by St Mark, and moreover related those

which he did record in a different order. For this discrepancy he

desires to account. The motive and the treatment have an exact parallel,

as I shall show hereafter, in the account of the Gospels given by the

author of the Muratorian Canon.

This is the plain and simple inference from the passage; and we have

only to ask whether this description corresponds with the phenomena of

our St Mark. That it does so correspond, I think, can hardly be denied.

As regards _completeness_, it is sufficient to call attention to the

fact that any one of our Canonical Gospels records many doings, and

above all, many sayings, which are omitted in St Mark. As regards

_order_ again, it may, I believe, safely be said that no writer of a

'Life of Christ' finds himself able to preserve the sequence of events

exactly as it stands in St Mark. His account does not profess to be

strictly chronological. There are indeed chronological links in the

narrative here and there; but throughout considerable parts of our

Lord's ministry the successive incidents are quite unconnected by

notices of time. In short, the Gospel is just what we should expect, if

the author had derived his information in the way reported by the

Presbyter. But our author objects, that it 'does not depart in any

important degree from the order of the other two Synoptics,' and that it

'throughout has the most evident character of orderly arrangement'

[165:1]. Persons may differ as to what is important or unimportant; but

if the reader will refer to any one of the common harmonies, those of

Anger and Tischendorf for instance, he will see that constant

transpositions are necessary in one or other of the Synoptic Gospels to

bring them into accordance, and will be able to judge for himself how

far this statement is true. 'Orderly arrangement' of some sort, no

doubt, there is; but it is just such as lay within the reach of a person

obtaining his knowledge at second-hand in this way. Our author himself

describes it lower down as 'artistic and orderly arrangement.' I shall

not quarrel with the phrase, though somewhat exaggerated. Any amount of

'artistic arrangement' is compatible with the notice of Papias, which

refers only to historical sequence. 'Artistic arrangement' does not

require the direct knowledge of an eye-witness. It will be observed

however, that our author speaks of a comparison with 'the order of the

other two Synoptics.' But what, if the comparison which Papias had in

view was wholly different? What, if he adduced this testimony of the

Presbyter to explain how St Mark's Gospel differed not from another

Synoptic narrative, but _from St John_? I shall return to this question

at a later point in these investigations.

Our author is no stranger to the use of strong words: 'If our present

Gospel,' he writes, 'cannot be proved to be the very work referred to by

the Presbyter John, as most certainly it cannot, the evidence of Papias

becomes fatal to the claims of the second Canonical Gospel' [165:2]. The

novelty of the logic in this sentence rivals the boldness of the

assumption.

Yet so entirely satisfied is he with the result of his arguments, that

he does not consider it 'necessary to account for the manner in which

the work to which the Presbyter John referred disappeared, and the

present Gospel according to Mark became substituted for it' [166:1]. But

others are of a more inquiring turn of mind. They will be haunted with

this difficulty, and will not be able thus to shelve the question. They

will venture to ask how it is that not any, even the faintest,

indication of the existence of this other Mark can be traced in all the

remains of Christian antiquity. They will observe too, that if the date

which our author himself adopts be correct, Irenæus was already grown

up to manhood when Papias wrote his work. They will remember that

Irenæus received his earliest Christian education from a friend of

Papias, and that his great authorities in everything which relates to

Christian tradition are the associates and fellow-countrymen of Papias.

They will remark that, having the work of Papias in his hands and

holding it in high esteem, he nevertheless is so impressed with the

conviction that our present four Gospels, and these only, had formed the

title-deeds of the Church from the beginning, that he ransacks heaven

and earth for analogies to this sacred number. They will perhaps carry

their investigations further, and discover that Irenæus not only

possessed our St Mark's Gospel, but possessed it also with its present

ending, which, though undoubtedly very early, can hardly have been part

of the original work. They will then pass on to the Muratorian author,

who probably wrote some years before Irenæus, and, remembering that

Irenæus represents the combined testimony of Asia Minor and Gaul, they

will see that they have here the representative of a different branch of

the Church, probably the Roman. Yet the Muratorian writer agrees with

Irenæus in representing our four Gospels, and these only, as the

traditional inheritance of the Church; for though the fragment is

mutilated at the beginning, so that the names of the first two

Evangelists have disappeared, the identity cannot be seriously

questioned. They will then extend their horizon to Clement in Alexandria

and Tertullian in Africa; and they will find these fathers also

possessed by the same belief. Impressed with this convergency of

testimony from so many different quarters, they will be utterly at a

loss to account for the unanimity of these early witnesses--all sharing

in the same delusion, all ignorant that a false Mark has been silently

substituted for the true Mark during their own lifetime, and

consequently assuming as an indisputable fact that the false Mark was

received by the Church from the beginning. And they will end in a revolt

against the attempt of our author to impose upon them with his favourite

commonplace about the 'thoroughly uncritical character of the fathers.'

Indeed, they will begin altogether to suspect this wholesale

denunciation; for they will observe that our author is convicted out of

his own context. They will remark how he repels an inconvenient question

of Tischendorf by a scornful reference to 'the frivolous character of

the _only_ criticism in which they [Eusebius and the other Christian

Fathers] _ever_ indulged [167:1].' Yet they will remember at the same

time to have read in this very chapter on Papias a highly intelligent

criticism of Eusebius, with which this father confronts a statement of

Irenæus, and which our author himself adopts as conclusive [167:2].

They will recall also, in this same context, a reference to a passage in

Dionysius of Alexandria, where this 'great Bishop' anticipates by nearly

sixteen centuries the criticisms of our own age concerning the

differences of style between the Fourth Gospel and the Apocalypse

[167:3].

From St Mark we pass to St Matthew. Papias has something to tell us of

this Gospel also; but here again we are asked to believe that we have a

case of mistaken identity.

After the notice relating to St Mark, Eusebius continues:--

But concerning Matthew, the following statement is made [by

Papias]: 'So then Matthew ([Greek: Matthaios men oun]) composed the

Oracles in the Hebrew language, and each one interpreted them as he

could.'

The assumption that this statement, like the former, was made on the

authority of the Presbyter, depends solely on the close proximity in

which the two extracts stand in Eusebius. It must therefore be regarded

as highly precarious. In Papias' own work the two extracts may have been

wide apart. Indeed the opening particles in the second passage prove

conclusively that it cannot have followed immediately on the first. Just

as the [Greek: hôs ephên] in the extract relating to St Mark showed that

it was a fragment torn from its context, so we have the similar evidence

of a violent severance here in the words [Greek: men oun]. The ragged

edge is apparent in both cases [168:1]. This fact must be borne in mind

in any criticisms which the passages suggest.

In this extract then Papias speaks of a state of things in which each

man interpreted the original Hebrew for himself. There can have been no

authoritative Greek Gospel of St Matthew at that time, if his account be

correct. So far his meaning is clear. But it is equally clear that the

time which he is here contemplating is not the time when he writes his

book, but some earlier epoch. He says not 'interprets,' but

'interpreted.' This past tense 'interpreted,' be it observed, is not the

tense of Eusebius reporting Papias, but of Papias himself. Everything

depends on this distinction; yet our author deliberately ignores it. He

does indeed state the grammatical argument correctly, as given by

others:--

Some consider that Papias or the Presbyter use the verb in the past

tense, [Greek: hêrmêneuse], as contrasting the time when it was

necessary for each to interpret as best he could with the period

when, from the existence of a recognized translation, it was no

longer necessary for them to do so [169:1].

Yet a few lines after, when he comes to comment upon it, he can write as

follows:--

The statement [of Papias] is perfectly simple and direct, and it is

at least quite clear that it conveys the fact that translation was

requisite: and, as each one translated 'as he was able,' that no

recognized translation existed to which all might have recourse.

There is absolutely not a syllable which warrants the conclusion

that Papias was acquainted with an authentic Greek version,

although it is possible that he may have known of the existence of

some Greek translations of no authority. The words used, however,

imply that, if he did, he had no respect for any of them [169:2].

Our author has here imposed upon himself by a grammatical trick. Hard

pressed by the argument, he has covered his retreat under an ambiguous

use of tenses. The words 'each one translated as he was able' are

perfectly clear in the direct language of Papias; but adopted without

alteration into the oblique statement of our author, they are altogether

obscure. 'Translation _was_ requisite.' Yes, but at what time? The fact

is that no careful reader can avoid asking why Papias writes

'interpreted,' and not 'interprets.' The natural answer is that the

necessity of which he speaks had already passed away. In other words, it

implies the existence of a recognized Greek translation, _when Papias

wrote_. Whence our author got his information that Papias 'had no

respect for' any such translation, it is difficult to say. Certainly not

from 'the words used'; for Papias says nothing about it, and we only

infer its existence from the suppressed contrast implied in the past

tense.

But, if a Greek St Matthew existed in the time of Papias, we are

forbidden by all considerations of historical probability to suppose

that it was any other than our St Matthew. As in the case of St Mark, so

here the contrary hypothesis is weighted with an accumulation of

improbabilities. The argument used there might be repeated _totidem

verbis_ here. It was enough that we were asked to accept the theory of a

mistaken identity once; but the same demand is renewed again. And the

improbability of this double mistake is very far greater than the sum of

the improbabilities in the two several cases, great as this sum would

be.

The testimony of Papias therefore may be accepted as valid so far as

regards the recognition of our St Matthew in his own age. But it does

not follow that his account of the origin was correct. It may or may not

have been. This is just what we cannot decide, because we do not know

exactly what he said. It cannot be inferred with any certainty from this

fragmentary excerpt of Eusebius, what Papias supposed to be the exact

relation of the Greek Gospel of St Matthew which he had before him to

the Hebrew document of which he speaks. Our author indeed says that our

First Gospel bears all the marks of an original, and cannot have been

translated from the Hebrew at all. This, I venture to think, is far more

than the facts will sustain. If he had said that it is not a homogeneous

Greek version of a homogeneous Hebrew original, this would have been

nearer to the truth. But we do not know that Papias said this. He may

have expressed himself in language quite consistent with the phenomena.

Or on the other hand he may, as Hilgenfeld supposes, have made the

mistake which some later fathers made, of thinking that the Gospel

according to the Hebrews was the original of our St Matthew. In the

absence of adequate data it is quite vain to conjecture. But meanwhile

we are not warranted in drawing any conclusion unfavourable either to

the accuracy of Papias or to the identity of the document itself.

Our author however maintains that the Hebrew St Matthew of which Papias

speaks was not a Gospel at all--_i.e._ not a narrative of our Lord's

life and ministry--but a mere collection of discourses or sayings. It is

urged that the expression, 'Matthew compiled the oracles' ([Greek:

xunegrapsato ta logia]), requires this interpretation. If this

explanation were correct, the notice would suggest that Papias looked

upon the Greek Gospel as not merely a translation, but an enlargement,

of the original document. In this case it would be vain to speculate how

or when or by whom he supposed it to be made; for either he did not give

this information, or (if he did) Eusebius has withheld it. This

hypothesis was first started, I believe, by Schleiermacher, and has

found favour with not a few critics of opposite schools. Attempts have

been made from time to time to restore this supposed document by

disengaging those portions of our First Gospel, which would correspond

to this idea, from their historical setting. The theory is not without

its attractions: it promises a solution of some difficulties; but

hitherto it has not yielded any results which would justify its

acceptance.

Our author speaks of those critics who reject it as 'in very many cases

largely influenced by the desire to see in these [Greek: logia] our

actual Gospel according to St Matthew' [171:1]. This is true in the same

sense in which it is true that those who take opposite views are largely

influenced in very many cases by the opposite desire. But such language

is only calculated to mislead. By no one is the theory of a collection

of discourses more strongly denounced than by Bleek [171:2], who

apparently considers that Papias did not here refer to a Greek Gospel at

all. 'There is nothing,' he writes, 'in the manner in which Papias

expresses himself to justify this supposition; he would certainly have

expressed himself as he does, if he meant an historical work like our

New Testament Gospels, if he were referring to a writing whose contents

were those of our Greek Gospel according to Matthew.' Equally decided

too is the language of Hilgenfeld [171:3], who certainly would not be

swayed by any bias in this direction.

Indeed this theory is encumbered with the most serious difficulties. In

the first place, there is no notice or trace elsewhere of any such

'collection of discourses.' In the next place, all other early writers

from Pantænus and Irenæus onwards, who allude to the subject, speak of

St Matthew as writing a Gospel, not a mere collection of sayings, in

Hebrew. If they derived their information in every case from Papias, it

is clear that they found no difficulty in interpreting his language so

as to include a narrative: if they did not (as seems more probable, and

as our author himself holds [172:1]), then their testimony is all the

more important, as of independent witnesses to the existence of a Hebrew

St Matthew, which was a narrative, and not a mere collection of

discourses.

Nor indeed does the expression itself drive us to any such hypothesis.

Hilgenfeld, while applying it to our First Gospel, explains it on

grounds which at all events are perfectly tenable. He supposes that

Papias mentions only the _sayings_ of Christ, not because St Matthew

recorded nothing else, but because he himself was concerned only with

these, and St Matthew's Gospel, as distinguished from St Mark's, was the

great storehouse of materials for his purpose [172:2]. I do not however

think that this is the right explanation. It supposes that only [Greek:

logoi] ('discourses' or 'sayings') could be called [Greek: logia]

('oracles'); but usage does not warrant this restriction. Thus we are

expressly told that the Scriptures recognized by Ephraem, Patriarch of

Antioch (about A.D. 525-545), consisted of 'the Old Testament and the

Oracles of the Lord ([Greek: ta kuriaka logia]) and the Preachings of

the Apostles' [172:3]. Here we have the very same expression which

occurs in Papias; and it is obviously employed as a synonyme for the

Gospels. Our author does not mention this close parallel, but he alleges

that 'however much the signification [of the expression 'the oracles,'

[Greek: ta logia]] became afterwards extended, it was not then at all

applied to doings as well as sayings'; and again, that 'there is no

linguistic precedent for straining the expression, used at that period,

to mean anything beyond a collection of sayings of Jesus which were

oracular or divine [173:1].' This objection, if it has any force, must

involve one or both of these two assumptions; _first_, that books which

were regarded as Scripture could not at this early date be called

oracles, unless they were occupied entirely with divine sayings;

_secondly_, that the Gospel of St Matthew in particular could not at

this time be regarded as Scripture. Both assumptions alike are

contradicted by facts.

The first is refuted by a large number of examples. St Paul, for

instance, describes it as the special privilege of the Jews, that they

had the keeping of the 'oracles of God' (Rom. iii. 2). Can we suppose

that he meant anything else but the Old Testament Scriptures by this

expression? Is it possible that he would exclude the books of Genesis,

of Joshua, of Samuel and Kings, or only include such fragments of them

as professed to give the direct sayings of God? Would he, or would he

not, comprise under the term the account of the creation and fall (1

Cor. xi. 8 sq), of the wanderings in the wilderness (1 Cor. x. 1 sq), of

Sarah and Hagar (Gal. iv. 21 sq)? Does not the main part of his argument

in the very next chapter (Rom. iv.) depend much more on the narrative of

God's dealings than of His words? Again, when the author of the Epistle

to the Hebrews refers to 'the first principles of the oracles of God'

(v. 12), his meaning is explained by his practice; for he elicits the

divine teaching quite as much from the history as from the direct

precepts of the Old Testament. But, if the language of the New Testament

writers leaves any loophole for doubt, this is not the case with their

contemporary Philo. In one place he speaks of the words in Deut. x. 9,

'The Lord God is his inheritance,' as an 'oracle' ([Greek: logion]); in

another he quotes as an 'oracle' ([Greek: logion]) the _narrative_ in

Gen. iv. 15, 'The Lord God set a mark upon Cain, lest anyone finding him

should kill him' [174:1]. From this and other passages it is clear that

with Philo an 'oracle' is a synonyme for a 'scripture.' Similarly

Clement of Rome writes, 'Ye know well the sacred Scriptures, and have

studied the oracles of God,' [174:2] and immediately he recalls to their

mind the account in Deut. ix. 12 sq, Exod. xxxii. 7 sq, of which the

point is not any divine precept or prediction, but _the example of

Moses_. A few years later Polycarp speaks in condemnation of those who

'pervert the oracles of the Lord.' [174:3] How much he included under

this expression, we cannot say, but it must be observed that he does not

write [Greek: ta kuriaka logia] 'the Dominical oracles,' or [Greek: ta

logia] 'the oracles' simply--the two expressions which occur in

Papias--but [Greek: ta logia tou Kuriou], 'the oracles of the Lord,'

which form of words would more directly suggest the Lord as the speaker.

Again Irenæus, denouncing the interpretations of the Scriptures current

among the Gnostics, uses the very expression of Papias, [Greek: ta

kuriaka logia] [174:4]; and though he does not define his exact meaning,

yet as the 'oracles of God' are mentioned immediately afterwards, and as

the first instance of such false interpretation which he gives is not a

saying, but an incident in the Gospels--the healing of the ruler's

daughter--we may infer that he had no idea of restricting the term to

sayings of Christ. Again when we turn to Clement of Alexandria, we find

that the Scriptures in one passage are called 'the oracles of truth,'

while in another among the good deeds attributed to Ezra is the

'discovery and restoration of the inspired oracles' [174:5]. Similarly

Origen speaks of the teachings of the Scripture as 'the oracles,' 'the

oracles of God' [175:1]. In the context of the latter of the two

passages to which I refer, he has clearly stated that he is

contemplating the histories, the law, and the prophets alike. So too St

Basil uses 'sacred' (or divine) 'oracles', 'oracles of the Spirit,'

[175:2] as synonymes for the Scriptures. And this catena of passages

might be largely extended.

Essays on the work entitled "Supernatural Religion" · 第 13 / 30 段