5. They might be born in servitude. Ex. xxi, 4.

6. If a Hebrew had sold himself to a rich Gentile, he might be

redeemed by one of his brethren at any time the money was offered; and

he who redeemed him, was _not_ to take advantage of the favor thus

conferred, and rule over him with rigor. Lev. xxv, 47-55.

Before going into an examination of the laws by which these servants

were protected, I would just ask whether American slaves have become

slaves in any of the ways in which the Hebrews became servants. Did

they sell themselves into slavery and receive the purchase money into

their own hands? No! Did they become insolvent, and by their own

imprudence subject themselves to be sold as slaves? No! Did they steal

the property of another, and were they sold to make restitution for

their crimes? No! Did their present masters, as an act of kindness,

redeem them from some heathen tyrant to whom _they had sold

themselves_ in the dark hour of adversity? No! Were they born in

slavery? No! No! not according to _Jewish Law_, for the servants who

were born in servitude among them, were born of parents who had _sold

themselves_ for six years: Ex. xxi, 4. Were the female slaves of

the South sold by their fathers? How shall I answer this question?

Thousands and tens of thousands never were, _their_ fathers _never_

have received the poor compensation of silver or gold for the tears

and toils, the suffering, and anguish, and hopeless bondage of _their_

daughters. They labor day by day, and year by year, side by side, in

the same field, if haply their daughters are permitted to remain on

the same plantation with them, instead of being as they often are,

separated from their parents and sold into distant states, never again

to meet on earth. But do the _fathers of the South ever sell their

daughters_? My heart beats, and my hand trembles, as I write the awful

affirmative, Yes! The fathers of this Christian land often sell

their daughters, _not_ as Jewish parents did, to be the wives and

daughters-in-law of the man who buys them, but to be the abject slaves

of petty tyrants and irresponsible masters. Is it not so, my friends?

I leave it to your own candor to corroborate my assertion. Southern

slaves then have _not_ become slaves in any of the six different ways

in which Hebrews became servants, and I hesitate not to say that

American masters _cannot_ according to _Jewish law_ substantiate their

claim to the men, women, or children they now hold in bondage.

But there was one way in which a Jew might illegally be reduced to

servitude; it was this, he might be _stolen_ and afterwards sold as a

slave, as was Joseph. To guard most effectually against this dreadful

crime of manstealing, God enacted this severe law. "He that stealeth a

man and selleth him, or if he be found in his hand, he shall surely be

put to death." [1] As I have tried American Slavery by _legal_ Hebrew

servitude, and found, (to your surprise, perhaps,) that Jewish law

cannot justify the slaveholder's claim, let us now try it by _illegal_

Hebrew bondage. Have the Southern slaves then been, stolen? If they

did not sell themselves into bondage; if they were not sold as

insolvent debtors or as thieves; if they were not redeemed from a

heathen master to whom _they had sold themselves_; if they were not

born in servitude according to Hebrew law; and if the females were

not sold by their fathers as wives and daughters-in-law to those who

purchased them; then what shall we say of them? what can we say of

them but that according _to Hebrew Law they have been stolen_.

But I shall be told that the Jews had other servants who were absolute

slaves. Let us look a little into this also. They had other servants

who were procured in two different ways.

1. Captives taken in war were reduced to bondage instead of being

killed; but we are not told that their children were enslaved Deut.

xx, 14.

2. Bondmen and bondmaids might be bought from the heathen round about

them; these were left by fathers to their children after them, but

it does not appear that the _children_ of these servants ever were

reduced to servitude. Lev. xxv, 44.

I will now try the right of the southern planter by the claims of

Hebrew masters over their _heathen_ slaves. Were the southern slaves

taken captive in war? No! Were they bought from the heathen? No! for

surely, no one will _now_ vindicate the slave-trade so far as to

assert that slaves were bought from the heathen who were obtained by

that system of piracy. The _only_ excuse for holding southern slaves

is that they were born in slavery, but we have seen that they were

_not_ born in servitude as Jewish servants were, and that the children

of heathen slaves were not legally subjected to bondage even under the

Mosaic Law. How then have the slaves of the South been obtained?

I will next proceed to an examination of those laws which were enacted

in order to protect the Hebrew and the Heathen servant; for I wish you

to understand that _both_ are protected by Him, of whom it is said

"his mercies are over _all_ his works." I will first speak of those

which secured the rights of Hebrew servants. This code was headed

thus:

1. Thou shalt _not_ rule over him with _rigor_, but shalt fear thy

God;

2. If thou buy a Hebrew servant, six years shall he serve, and in

the seventh year he shall go out free for nothing. Ex. xxi, 2. [2]

3. If he come in by himself, he shall go out by himself; if he were

married, then his wife shall go out with him.

4. If his master have given him a wife and she have borne him sons and

daughters, the wife and her children shall be his master's, and he

shall go out by himself.

5. If the servant shall plainly say, I love my master, my wife, and my

children; I will not go out free; then his master shall bring him unto

the Judges, and he shall bring him to the door, or unto the door-post,

and his master shall bore his ear through with an awl, and he shall

serve him _forever_. Ex. xxi, 5-6.

6. If a man smite the eye of his servant, or the eye of his maid, that

it perish, he shall let him go _free_ for his eye's sake. And if he

smite out his man servant's tooth or his maid servant's tooth, he

shall let him go _free_ for his tooth's sake. Ex. xxi, 26, 27.

7. On the Sabbath rest was secured to servants by the fourth

commandment. Ex. xx, 10.

8. Servants were permitted to unite with their masters three times in

every year in celebrating the Passover, the feast of Pentecost, and

the feast of Tabernacles; every male throughout the land was to appear

before the Lord at Jerusalem with a gift; here the bond and the free

stood on common ground. Deut. xvi.

9. If a man smite his servant or his maid with a rod, and he die under

his hand, he shall be surely punished. Notwithstanding, if he continue

a day or two, he shall not be punished, for he is his money. Ex. xxi,

20, 21.

From these laws we learn that Hebrew men servants were bound to serve

their masters _only six_ years, unless their attachment to their

employers their wives and children, should induce them to wish

to remain in servitude, in which case, in order to prevent the

possibility of deception on the part of the master, the servant was

first taken before the magistrate, where he openly declared his

intention of continuing in his master's service, (probably a public

register was kept of such) he was then conducted to the door of the

house, (in warm climates doors are thrown open,) and _there_ his ear

was _publicly_ bored, and by submitting to this operation he testified

his willingness to serve him _forever_, i.e. during his life, for

Jewish Rabbins who must have understood Jewish _slavery_, (as it is

called,) "affirm that servants were set free at the death of their

masters and did _not_ descend to their heirs:" or that he was to

serve him until the year of Jubilee, when _all_ servants were set at

liberty. To protect servants from violence, it was ordained that if a

master struck out the tooth or destroyed the eye of a servant, that

servant immediately became _free_, for such an act of violence

evidently showed he was unfit to possess the power of a master, and

therefore that power was taken from him. All servants enjoyed the rest

of the Sabbath and partook of the privileges and festivities of the

three great Jewish Feasts; and if a servant died under the infliction

of chastisement, his master was surely to be punished. As a tooth

for a tooth and life for life was the Jewish law, of course he was

punished with death. I know that great stress has been laid upon the

following verse: "Notwithstanding, if he continue a day or two, he

shall not be punished, for he is his money."

Slaveholders, and the apologists of slavery, have eagerly seized upon

this little passage of scripture, and held it up as the masters' Magna

Charta, by which they were licensed by God himself to commit the

greatest outrages upon the defenceless victims of their oppression.

But, my friends, was it designed to be so? If our Heavenly Father

would protect by law the eye and the tooth of a Hebrew servant, can we

for a moment believe that he would abandon that same servant to the

brutal rage of a master who would destroy even life itself. Do we not

rather see in this, the _only_ law which protected masters, and was

it not right that in case of the death of a servant, one or two days

after chastisement was inflicted, to which other circumstances might

have contributed, that the master should be protected when, in all

probability, he never intended to produce so fatal a result? But the

phrase "he is his money" has been adduced to show that Hebrew servants

were regarded as mere _things_, "chattels personal;" if so, why were

so many laws made to _secure their rights as men_, and to ensure their

rising into equality and freedom? If they were mere _things_, why were

they regarded as responsible beings, and one law made for them as well

as for their masters? But I pass on now to the consideration of how

the _female_ Jewish servants were protected by _law_.

1. If she please not her master, who hath betrothed her to himself,

then shall he let her be redeemed: to sell her unto another nation he

shall have no power, seeing he hath dealt deceitfully with her.

2. If he have betrothed her unto his son, he shall deal with her after

the manner of daughters.

3. If he take him another wife, her food, her raiment, and her duty of

marriage, shall he not diminish.

4. If he do not these three unto her, then shall she go out _free_

without money.

On these laws I will give you Calmet's remarks; "A father could not

sell his daughter as a slave, according to the Rabbins, until she

was at the age of puberty, and unless he were reduced to the utmost

indigence. Besides when a master bought an Israelitish girl, it was

_always_ with the presumption that he would take her to wife. Hence

Moses adds, 'if she please not her master, and he does not think

fit to marry her, he shall set her at liberty,' or according to the

Hebrew, 'he shall let her be redeemed.' 'To sell her to another nation

he shall have no power, seeing he hath dealt deceitfully with her;' as

to the engagement implied, at least of taking her to wife. 'If he have

betrothed her unto his son, he shall deal with her after the manner of

daughters, i.e. he shall take care that his son uses her as his wife,

that he does not despise or maltreat her. If he make his son

marry another wife, he shall give her her dowry, her clothes and

compensation for her virginity; if he does none of these three, she

shall _go out free_ without money." Thus were the _rights of female

servants carefully secured by law_ under the Jewish Dispensation; and

now I would ask, are the rights of female slaves at the South thus

secured? Are _they_ sold only as wives and daughters-in-law, and when

not treated as such, are they allowed to _go out free?_ No! They have

_all_ not only been illegally obtained as servants according to Hebrew

law, but they are also illegally _held_ in bondage. Masters at the

South and West have all forfeited their claims, (_if they ever had

any_,) to their female slaves.

We come now to examine the case of those servants who were "of the

heathen round about;" Were _they_ left entirely unprotected by law?

Horne in speaking of the law, "Thou shalt not rule over him with

rigor, but shall fear thy God," remarks, "this law Lev. xxv, 43, it

is true speaks expressly of slaves who were of Hebrew descent; but

as _alien born_ slaves were ingrafted into the Hebrew Church by

circumcision, _there is no doubt_ but that it applied to _all_

slaves;" if so, then we may reasonably suppose that the other

protective laws extended to them also; and that the only difference

between Hebrew and Heathen servants lay in this, that the former

served but six years unless they chose to remain longer, and were

always freed at the death of their masters; whereas the latter served

until the year of Jubilee, though that might include a period of

forty-nine years,--and were left from father to son.

There are however two other laws which I have not yet noticed. The

one effectually prevented _all involuntary_ servitude, and the other

completely abolished Jewish servitude every fifty years. They were

equally operative upon the Heathen and the Hebrew.

1. "Thou shall _not_ deliver unto his master the servant that is

escaped from his master unto thee. He shall dwell with thee, even

among you, in that place which he shall choose, in one of thy gates

where it liketh him best: thou shall _not_ oppress him." Deut. xxiii,

15, 16.

2. "And ye shall hallow the fiftieth year, and proclaim _Liberty_

throughout _all_ the land, unto _all_ the inhabitants thereof: it

shall be a jubilee unto you." Lev. xxv, 10.

Here, then, we see that by this first law, the _door of Freedom was

opened wide to every servant who_ had any cause whatever for

complaint; if he was unhappy with his master, all he had to do was to

leave him, and _no man_ had a right to deliver him back to him again,

and not only so, but the absconded servant was to _choose_ where he

should live, and no Jew was permitted to oppress him. He left his

master just as our Northern servants leave us; we have no power to

compel them to remain with us, and no man has any right to oppress

them; they go and dwell in that place where it chooseth them, and live

just where they like. Is it so at the South? Is the poor runaway slave

protected _by law_ from the violence of that master whose oppression

and cruelty has driven him from his plantation or his house? No! no!

Even the free states of the North are compelled to deliver unto his

master the servant that is escaped from his master into them. By

_human_ law, under the _Christian Dispensation_, in the _nineteenth

century we_ are commanded to do, what _God_ more than _three thousand_

years ago, under the _Mosaic Dispensation, positively commanded_ the

Jews _not_ to do. In the wide domain even of our free states, there is

not _one_ city of refuge for the poor runaway fugitive; not one spot

upon which he can stand and say, I am a free man--I am protected in my

rights as a _man_, by the strong arm of the law; no! _not one_. How

long the North will thus shake hands with the South in sin, I know

not. How long she will stand by like the persecutor Saul, _consenting_

unto the death of Stephen, and keeping the raiment of them that slew

him. I know not; but one thing I do know, the _guilt of the North_ is

increasing in a tremendous ratio as light is pouring in upon her on

the subject and the sin of slavery. As the sun of righteousness climbs

higher and higher in the moral heavens, she will stand still more and

more abashed as the query is thundered down into her ear, "_Who_ hath

required _this_ at thy hand?" It will be found _no_ excuse then that

the Constitution of our country required that _persons bound to

service_ escaping from their masters should be delivered up; no more

excuse than was the reason which Adam assigned for eating the forbidden

fruit. _He_ was _condemned and punished because_ he hearkened to the

voice of _his wife_, rather than to the command of his Maker; and _we_

will assuredly be condemned and punished for obeying _Man_ rather than

_God_, if we do not speedily repent and bring forth fruits meet for

repentance. Yea, are we not receiving chastisement even _now_?

But by the second of these laws a still more astonishing fact is

disclosed. If the first effectually prevented _all involuntary

servitude_, the last absolutely forbade even _voluntary servitude

being perpetual_. On the great day of atonement every fiftieth year

the Jubilee trumpet was sounded throughout the land of Judea, and

_Liberty_ was proclaimed to _all_ the inhabitants thereof. I will not

say that the servants' _chains_ fell off and their _manacles_ were

burst, for there is no evidence that Jewish servants _ever_ felt the

weight of iron chains, and collars, and handcuffs; but I do say that

even the man who had voluntarily sold himself and the _heathen_ who

had been sold to a Hebrew master, were set free, the one as well as

the other. This law was evidently designed to prevent the oppression

of the poor, and the possibility of such a thing as _perpetual

servitude_ existing among them.

Where, then, I would ask, is the warrant, the justification, or the

palliation of American Slavery from Hebrew servitude? How many of

the southern slaves would now be in bondage according to the laws of

Moses; Not one. You may observe that I have carefully avoided using

the term _slavery_ when speaking of Jewish servitude; and simply for

this reason, that _no such thing_ existed among that people; the word

translated servant does _not_ mean _slave_, it is the same that is

applied to Abraham, to Moses, to Elisha and the prophets generally.

Slavery then never existed under the Jewish Dispensation at all, and

I cannot but regard it as an aspersion on the character of Him who is

"glorious in Holiness" for any one to assert that "_God sanctioned,

yea commanded slavery_ under the old dispensation." I would fain

lift my feeble voice to vindicate Jehovah's character from so foul a

slander. If slaveholders are determined to hold slaves as long as

they can, let them not dare to say that the God of mercy and of truth

_ever_ sanctioned such a system of cruelty and wrong. It is blasphemy

against Him.

We have seen that the code of laws framed by Moses with regard to

servants was designed to protect them as men and women, to secure to

them their rights as human beings, to guard them from oppression and

defend them from violence of every kind. Let us now turn to the Slave

laws of the South and West and examine them too. I will give you the

substance only, because I fear I shall tresspass too much on your

time, were I to quote them at length.

1. _Slavery_ is hereditary and perpetual, to the last moment of the

slave's earthly existence, and to all his descendants to the latest

posterity.

2. The labor of the slave is compulsory and uncompensated; while the

kind of labor, the amount of toil, the time allowed for rest, are

dictated solely by the master. No bargain is made, no wages given.

A pure despotism governs the human brute; and even his covering and

provender, both as to quantity and quality, depend entirely on the

master's discretion. [3]

3. The slave being considered a personal chattel may be sold or

pledged, or leased at the will of his master. He may be exchanged for

marketable commodities, or taken in execution for the debts or

taxes either of a living or dead master. Sold at auction, either

individually, or in lots to suit the purchaser, he may remain with his

family, or be separated from them for ever.

4. Slaves can make no contracts and have no _legal_ right to any

property, real or personal. Their own honest earnings and the legacies

of friends belong in point of law to their masters.

5. Neither a slave nor a free colored person can be a witness against

any _white_, or free person, in a court of justice, however atrocious

may have been the crimes they have seen him commit, if such testimony

would be for the benefit of a _slave_; but they may give testimony

_against a fellow slave_, or free colored man, even in cases affecting

life, if the _master_ is to reap the advantage of it.

6. The slave may be punished at his master's discretion--without

trial--without any means of legal redress; whether his offence be real

or imaginary; and the master can transfer the same despotic power to

any person or persons, he may choose to appoint.

7. The slave is not allowed to resist any free man under _any_

circumstances, _his_ only safety consists in the fact that his _owner_

may bring suit and recover the price of his body, in case his life is

taken, or his limbs rendered unfit for labor.

8. Slaves cannot redeem themselves, or obtain a change of masters,

though cruel treatment may have' rendered such a change necessary for

their personal safety.

An Appeal to the Christian Women of the South · 第 5 / 7 题