LORD ELDON'S DOCTRINE AS TO GRAMMAR SCHOOLS.--DEMOCRACY.

Lord Eldon's doctrine, that grammar schools, in the sense of the reign of

Edward VI. and Queen Elizabeth, must necessarily mean schools for teaching

Latin and Greek, is, I think, founded on an insufficient knowledge of the

history and literature of the sixteenth century. Ben Jonson uses the term

"grammar" without any reference to the learned languages.

* * * * *

It is intolerable when men, who have no other knowledge, have not even a

competent understanding of that world in which they are always living, and

to which they refer every thing.

* * * * *

Although contemporary events obscure past events in a living man's life,

yet as soon as he is dead, and his whole life is a matter of history, one

action stands out as conspicuously as another.

A democracy, according to the prescript of pure reason, would, in fact, be

a church. There would he focal points in it, but no superior.

_May 20. 1830._

THE EUCHARIST.--ST. JOHN, xix. 11.--GENUINENESS OF BOOKS OF MOSES.--

DIVINITY OF CHRIST.--MOSAIC PROPHECIES.

No doubt, Chrysostom, and the other rhetorical fathers, contributed a good

deal, by their rash use of figurative language, to advance the

superstitious notion of the eucharist; but the beginning had been much

earlier. [1] In Clement, indeed, the mystery is treated as it was treated

by Saint John and Saint Paul; but in Hermas we see the seeds of the error,

and more clearly in Irenaeus; and so it went on till the idea was changed

into an idol.

[Footnote 1:

Mr. Coleridge made these remarks upon my quoting Selden's well-known saying

(Table Talk), "that transubstantiation was nothing but rhetoric turned into

logic."--ED.]

* * * * *

The errors of the Sacramentaries, on the one hand, and of the Romanists on

the other, are equally great. The first have volatilized the eucharist into

a metaphor; the last have condensed it into an idol.

Jeremy Taylor, in his zeal against transubstantiation, contends that the

latter part of the sixth chapter of St. John's Gospel has no reference to

the eucharist. If so, St. John wholly passes over this sacred mystery; for

he does not include it in his notice of the last supper. Would not a total

silence of this great apostle and evangelist upon this mystery be strange?

A mystery, I say; for it _is_ a mystery; it is the only mystery in our

religious worship. When many of the disciples left our Lord, and apparently

on the very ground that this saying was hard, he does not attempt to detain

them by any explanation, but simply adds the comment, that his words were

spirit. If he had really meant that the eucharist should he a mere

commemorative celebration of his death, is it conceivable that he would let

these disciples go away from him upon such a gross misunderstanding? Would

he not have said, "You need not make a difficulty; I only mean so and so?"

* * * * *

Arnauld, and the other learned Romanists, are irresistible against the low

sacramentary doctrine.

* * * * *

The sacrament of baptism applies itself, and has reference to the faith or

conviction, and is, therefore, only to be performed once;--it is the light

of man. The sacrament of the eucharist is a symbol of _all_ our religion;--

it is the life of man. It is commensurate with our will, and we must,

therefore, want it continually.

* * * * *

The meaning of the expression, [Greek: ei m_e _en soi didomenon an_othen],

"except it were given thee _from above_," in the 19th chapter of St. John,

ver. 11., seems to me to have been generally and grossly mistaken. It is

commonly understood as importing that Pilate could have no power to deliver

Jesus to the Jews, unless it had been given him _by God_, which, no doubt,

is true; but if that is the meaning, where is the force or connection of

the following clause, [Greek: dia touto], "_therefore_ he that delivered me

unto thee hath the greater sin?" In what respect were the Jews more sinful

in delivering Jesus up, _because_ Pilate could do nothing except by God's

leave? The explanation of Erasmus and Clarke, and some others, is very dry-

footed. I conceive the meaning of our Lord to have been simply this, that

Pilate would have had no power or jurisdiction--[Greek: exousian]--over

him, if it had not been given by the Sanhedrin, the [Greek: an_o boul_e],

and _therefore_ it was that the Jews had the greater sin. There was also

this further peculiar baseness and malignity in the conduct of the Jews.

The mere assumption of Messiahship, as such, was no crime in the eyes of

the Jews; they hated Jesus, because he would not be _their sort_ of

Messiah: on the other hand, the Romans cared not for his declaration that

he was the Son of God; the crime in _their_ eyes was his assuming to be a

king. Now, here were the Jews accusing Jesus before the Roman governor of

_that_ which, in the first place, they knew that Jesus denied in the sense

in which they urged it, and which, in the next place, had the charge been

true, would have been so far from a crime in their eyes, that the very

gospel history itself, as well as all the history to the destruction of

Jerusalem, shows it would have been popular with the whole nation. They

wished to destroy him, and for that purpose charge him falsely with a crime

which yet was no crime in their own eyes, if it had been true; but only so

as against the Roman domination, which they hated with all their souls, and

against which they were themselves continually conspiring!

* * * * *

Observe, I pray, the manner and sense in which the high-priest understands

the plain declaration of our Lord, that he was the Son of God. [Footnote:

Matt. xxvi. v. 63. Mark, xiv. 61.] "I adjure thee by the living God, that

thou tell us whether thou be the Christ, the Son of God," or "the Son of

the Blessed," as it is in Mark. Jesus said, "I am,--and hereafter ye shall

see the Son of man (or me) sitting on the right hand of power, and coming

in the clouds of heaven." Does Caiaphas take this explicit answer as if

Jesus meant that he was full of God's spirit, or was doing his commands, or

walking in his ways, in which sense Moses, the prophets, nay, all good men,

were and are the sons of God? No, no! He tears his robes in sunder, and

cries out, "He hath spoken blasphemy. What further need have we of

witnesses? Behold, now ye have heard his blasphemy." What blasphemy, I

should like to know, unless the assuming to be the "Son of God" was

assuming to be of the _divine nature_?

* * * * *

One striking proof of the genuineness of the Mosaic books is this,--they

contain precise prohibitions--by way of predicting the consequences of

disobedience--of all those things which David and Solomon actually did, and

gloried in doing,--raising cavalry, making a treaty with Egypt, laying up

treasure, and polygamising. Now, would such prohibitions have been

fabricated in those kings' reigns, or afterwards? Impossible.

* * * * *

The manner of the predictions of Moses is very remarkable. He is like a man

standing on an eminence, and addressing people below him, and pointing to

things which he can, and they cannot, see. He does not say, You will act in

such and such a way, and the consequences will be so and so; but, So and so

will take place, because you will act in such a way!

May 21. 1830.

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