SECOND ARTICLE [III, Q. 66, Art. 2]

Whether Baptism Was Instituted After Christ's Passion?

Objection 1: It seems that Baptism was instituted after Christ's

Passion. For the cause precedes the effect. Now Christ's Passion

operates in the sacraments of the New Law. Therefore Christ's Passion

precedes the institution of the sacraments of the New Law: especially

the sacrament of Baptism since the Apostle says (Rom. 6:3): "All we,

who are baptized in Christ Jesus, are baptized in His death," etc.

Obj. 2: Further, the sacraments of the New Law derive their efficacy

from the mandate of Christ. But Christ gave the disciples the mandate

of Baptism after His Passion and Resurrection, when He said: "Going,

teach ye all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father," etc.

(Matt. 28:19). Therefore it seems that Baptism was instituted after

Christ's Passion.

Obj. 3: Further, Baptism is a necessary sacrament, as stated above

(Q. 65, A. 4): wherefore, seemingly, it must have been binding on man

as soon as it was instituted. But before Christ's Passion men were

not bound to be baptized: for Circumcision was still in force, which

was supplanted by Baptism. Therefore it seems that Baptism was not

instituted before Christ's Passion.

_On the contrary,_ Augustine says in a sermon on the Epiphany

(Append. Serm., clxxxv): "As soon as Christ was plunged into the

waters, the waters washed away the sins of all." But this was before

Christ's Passion. Therefore Baptism was instituted before Christ's

Passion.

_I answer that,_ As stated above (Q. 62, A. 1), sacraments derive

from their institution the power of conferring grace. Wherefore it

seems that a sacrament is then instituted, when it receives the power

of producing its effect. Now Baptism received this power when Christ

was baptized. Consequently Baptism was truly instituted then, if we

consider it as a sacrament. But the obligation of receiving this

sacrament was proclaimed to mankind after the Passion and

Resurrection. First, because Christ's Passion put an end to the

figurative sacraments, which were supplanted by Baptism and the other

sacraments of the New Law. Secondly, because by Baptism man is "made

conformable" to Christ's Passion and Resurrection, in so far as he

dies to sin and begins to live anew unto righteousness. Consequently

it behooved Christ to suffer and to rise again, before proclaiming to

man his obligation of conforming himself to Christ's Death and

Resurrection.

Reply Obj. 1: Even before Christ's Passion, Baptism, inasmuch as it

foreshadowed it, derived its efficacy therefrom; but not in the same

way as the sacraments of the Old Law. For these were mere figures:

whereas Baptism derived the power of justifying from Christ Himself,

to Whose power the Passion itself owed its saving virtue.

Reply Obj. 2: It was not meet that men should be restricted to a

number of figures by Christ, Who came to fulfil and replace the

figure by His reality. Therefore before His Passion He did not make

Baptism obligatory as soon as it was instituted; but wished men to

become accustomed to its use; especially in regard to the Jews, to

whom all things were figurative, as Augustine says (Contra Faust.

iv). But after His Passion and Resurrection He made Baptism

obligatory, not only on the Jews, but also on the Gentiles, when He

gave the commandment: "Going, teach ye all nations."

Reply Obj. 3: Sacraments are not obligatory except when we are

commanded to receive them. And this was not before the Passion, as

stated above. For our Lord's words to Nicodemus (John 3:5), "Unless a

man be born again of water and the Holy Ghost, he cannot enter into

the kingdom of God, seem to refer to the future rather than to the

present."

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Summa Theologica, Part III (Tertia Pars) From the Complete American Edition · 第 446 / 654 题