THIRD ARTICLE [III, Q. 61, Art. 3]

Whether There Should Have Been Sacraments After Sin, Before Christ?

Objection 1: It seems that there should have been no sacraments after

sin, before Christ. For it has been stated that the Passion of Christ

is applied to men through the sacraments: so that Christ's Passion is

compared to the sacraments as cause to effect. But effect does not

precede cause. Therefore there should have been no sacraments before

Christ's coming.

Obj. 2: Further, sacraments should be suitable to the state of the

human race, as Augustine declares (Contra Faust. xix). But the state

of the human race underwent no change after sin until it was repaired

by Christ. Neither, therefore, should the sacraments have been

changed, so that besides the sacraments of the natural law, others

should be instituted in the law of Moses.

Obj. 3: Further, the nearer a thing approaches to that which is

perfect, the more like it should it be. Now the perfection of human

salvation was accomplished by Christ; to Whom the sacraments of the

Old Law were nearer than those that preceded the Law. Therefore they

should have borne a greater likeness to the sacraments of Christ. And

yet the contrary is the case, since it was foretold that the

priesthood of Christ would be "according to the order of

Melchisedech, and not . . . according to the order of Aaron" (Heb.

7:11). Therefore sacraments were unsuitably instituted before Christ.

_On the contrary,_ Augustine says (Contra Faust. xix) that "the first

sacraments which the Law commanded to be solemnized and observed were

announcements of Christ's future coming." But it was necessary for

man's salvation that Christ's coming should be announced beforehand.

Therefore it was necessary that some sacraments should be instituted

before Christ.

_I answer that,_ Sacraments are necessary for man's salvation, in so

far as they are sensible signs of invisible things whereby man is

made holy. Now after sin no man can be made holy save through Christ,

"Whom God hath proposed to be a propitiation, through faith in His

blood, to the showing of His justice . . . that He Himself may be

just, and the justifier of him who is of the faith of Jesus Christ"

(Rom. 3:25, 26). Therefore before Christ's coming there was need for

some visible signs whereby man might testify to his faith in the

future coming of a Saviour. And these signs are called sacraments. It

is therefore clear that some sacraments were necessary before

Christ's coming.

Reply Obj. 1: Christ's Passion is the final cause of the old

sacraments: for they were instituted in order to foreshadow it. Now

the final cause precedes not in time, but in the intention of the

agent. Consequently, there is no reason against the existence of

sacraments before Christ's Passion.

Reply Obj. 2: The state of the human race after sin and before Christ

can be considered from two points of view. First, from that of faith:

and thus it was always one and the same: since men were made

righteous, through faith in the future coming of Christ. Secondly,

according as sin was more or less intense, and knowledge concerning

Christ more or less explicit. For as time went on sin gained a

greater hold on man, so much so that it clouded man's reason, the

consequence being that the precepts of the natural law were

insufficient to make man live aright, and it became necessary to have

a written code of fixed laws, and together with these certain

sacraments of faith. For it was necessary, as time went on, that the

knowledge of faith should be more and more unfolded, since, as

Gregory says (Hom. vi in Ezech.): "With the advance of time there was

an advance in the knowledge of Divine things." Consequently in the

old Law there was also a need for certain fixed sacraments

significative of man's faith in the future coming of Christ: which

sacraments are compared to those that preceded the Law, as something

determinate to that which is indeterminate: inasmuch as before the

Law it was not laid down precisely of what sacraments men were to

make use: whereas this was prescribed by the Law; and this was

necessary both on account of the overclouding of the natural law, and

for the clearer signification of faith.

Reply Obj. 3: The sacrament of Melchisedech which preceded the Law is

more like the Sacrament of the New Law in its matter: in so far as

"he offered bread and wine" (Gen. 14:18), just as bread and wine are

offered in the sacrifice of the New Testament. Nevertheless the

sacraments of the Mosaic Law are more like the thing signified by the

sacrament, i.e. the Passion of Christ: as clearly appears in the

Paschal Lamb and such like. The reason of this was lest, if the

sacraments retained the same appearance, it might seem to be the

continuation of one and the same sacrament, where there was no

interruption of time.

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Summa Theologica, Part III (Tertia Pars) From the Complete American Edition · 第 412 / 654 题