THIRD ARTICLE [III, Q. 59, Art. 3]

Whether Christ Acquired His Judiciary Power by His Merits?

Objection 1: It would seem that Christ did not acquire His judiciary

power by His merits. For judiciary power flows from the royal

dignity: according to Prov. 20:8: "The king that sitteth on the

throne of judgment, scattereth away all evil with his look." But it

was without merits that Christ acquired royal power, for it is His

due as God's Only-begotten Son: thus it is written (Luke 1:32): "The

Lord God shall give unto Him the throne of David His father, and He

shall reign in the house of Jacob for ever." Therefore Christ did not

obtain judiciary power by His merits.

Obj. 2: Further, as stated above (A. 2), judiciary power is Christ's

due inasmuch as He is our Head. But the grace of headship does not

belong to Christ by reason of merit, but follows the personal union

of the Divine and human natures: according to John 1:14, 16: "We saw

His glory . . . as of the Only-Begotten of the Father, full of grace

and truth . . . and of His fulness we all have received": and this

pertains to the notion of headship. Consequently, it seems that

Christ did not have judiciary power from merits.

Obj. 3: Further, the Apostle says (1 Cor. 2:15): "The spiritual man

judgeth all things." But a man becomes spiritual through grace, which

is not from merits; otherwise it is "no more grace," as is said in

Rom. 11:6. Therefore it seems that judiciary power belongs neither to

Christ nor to others from any merits, but from grace alone.

_On the contrary,_ It is written (Job 36:17): "Thy cause hath been

judged as that of the wicked, cause and judgment thou shalt recover."

And Augustine says (Serm. cxxvii): "The Judge shall sit, who stood

before a judge; He shall condemn the truly wicked, who Himself was

falsely reputed wicked."

_I answer that,_ There is nothing to hinder one and the same thing

from being due to some one from various causes: as the glory of the

body in rising was due to Christ not only as befitting His Godhead

and His soul's glory, but likewise "from the merit of the lowliness

of His Passion" [*Cf. Augustine, Tract. civ in Joan.]. And in the

same way it must be said that judiciary power belongs to the Man

Christ on account of both His Divine personality, and the dignity of

His headship, and the fulness of His habitual grace: and yet He

obtained it from merit, so that, in accordance with the Divine

justice, He should be judge who fought for God's justice, and

conquered, and was unjustly condemned. Hence He Himself says (Apoc.

3:21): "I have overcome and am set down in My Father's throne [Vulg.:

'with My Father in His throne']." Now judiciary power is understood

by "throne," according to Ps. 9:5: "Thou hast sat on the throne, who

judgest justice."

Reply Obj. 1: This argument holds good of judiciary power according

as it is due to Christ by reason of the union with the Word of God.

Reply Obj. 2: This argument is based on the ground of His grace as

Head.

Reply Obj. 3: This argument holds good in regard to habitual grace,

which perfects Christ's soul. But although judiciary power be

Christ's due in these ways, it is not hindered from being His due

from merit.

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Summa Theologica, Part III (Tertia Pars) From the Complete American Edition · 第 396 / 654 题