Whether It Is Proper to Christ to Be the Redeemer?
Objection 1: It would seem that it is not proper to Christ to be the
Redeemer, because it is written (Ps. 30:6): "Thou hast redeemed me, O
Lord, the God of Truth." But to be the Lord God of Truth belongs to
the entire Trinity. Therefore it is not proper to Christ.
Obj. 2: Further, he is said to redeem who pays the price of
redemption. But God the Father gave His Son in redemption for our
sins, as is written (Ps. 110:9): "The Lord hath sent redemption to
His people," upon which the gloss adds, "that is, Christ, who gives
redemption to captives." Therefore not only Christ, but the Father
also, redeemed us.
Obj. 3: Further, not only Christ's Passion, but also that of other
saints conduced to our salvation, according to Col. 1:24: "I now
rejoice in my sufferings for you, and fill up those things that are
wanting of the sufferings of Christ, in my flesh for His body, which
is the Church." Therefore the title of Redeemer belongs not only to
Christ, but also to the other saints.
_On the contrary,_ It is written (Gal. 3:13): "Christ redeemed us
from the curse of the Law, being made a curse for us." But only
Christ was made a curse for us. Therefore only Christ ought to be
called our Redeemer.
_I answer that,_ For someone to redeem, two things are
required--namely, the act of paying and the price paid. For if in
redeeming something a man pays a price which is not his own, but
another's, he is not said to be the chief redeemer, but rather the
other is, whose price it is. Now Christ's blood or His bodily life,
which "is in the blood," is the price of our redemption (Lev. 17:11,
14), and that life He paid. Hence both of these belong immediately to
Christ as man; but to the Trinity as to the first and remote cause,
to whom Christ's life belonged as to its first author, and from whom
Christ received the inspiration of suffering for us. Consequently it
is proper to Christ as man to be the Redeemer immediately; although
the redemption may be ascribed to the whole Trinity as its first
cause.
Reply Obj. 1: A gloss explains the text thus: "Thou, O Lord God of
Truth, hast redeemed me in Christ, crying out, 'Lord, into Thy hands
I commend my spirit.'" And so redemption belongs immediately to the
Man-Christ, but principally to God.
Reply Obj. 2: The Man-Christ paid the price of our redemption
immediately, but at the command of the Father as the original author.
Reply Obj. 3: The sufferings of the saints are beneficial to the
Church, as by way, not of redemption, but of example and exhortation,
according to 2 Cor. 1:6: "Whether we be in tribulation, it is for
your exhortation and salvation."
_______________________