FIRST ARTICLE [III, Q. 43, Art. 1]

Whether Christ Should Have Worked Miracles?

Objection 1: It would seem that Christ should not have worked

miracles. For Christ's deeds should have been consistent with His

words. But He Himself said (Matt. 16:4): "A wicked and adulterous

generation seeketh after a sign; and a sign shall not be given it,

but the sign of Jonas the prophet." Therefore He should not have

worked miracles.

Obj. 2: Further, just as Christ, at His second coming, is to come

with great power and majesty, as is written Matt. 24:30, so at His

first coming He came in infirmity, according to Isa. 53:3: "A man of

sorrows and acquainted with infirmity." But the working of miracles

belongs to power rather than to infirmity. Therefore it was not

fitting that He should work miracles in His first coming.

Obj. 3: Further, Christ came that He might save men by faith;

according to Heb. 12:2: "Looking on Jesus, the author and finisher of

faith." But miracles lessen the merit of faith; hence our Lord says

(John 4:48): "Unless you see signs and wonders you believe not."

Therefore it seems that Christ should not have worked miracles.

_On the contrary,_ It was said in the person of His adversaries (John

11:47): "What do we; for this man doth many miracles?"

_I answer that,_ God enables man to work miracles for two reasons.

First and principally, in confirmation of the doctrine that a man

teaches. For since those things which are of faith surpass human

reason, they cannot be proved by human arguments, but need to be

proved by the argument of Divine power: so that when a man does works

that God alone can do, we may believe that what he says is from God:

just as when a man is the bearer of letters sealed with the king's

ring, it is to be believed that what they contain expresses the

king's will.

Secondly, in order to make known God's presence in a man by the grace

of the Holy Ghost: so that when a man does the works of God we may

believe that God dwells in him by His grace. Wherefore it is written

(Gal. 3:5): "He who giveth to you the Spirit, and worketh miracles

among you."

Now both these things were to be made known to men concerning

Christ--namely, that God dwelt in Him by grace, not of adoption, but

of union: and that His supernatural doctrine was from God. And

therefore it was most fitting that He should work miracles. Wherefore

He Himself says (John 10:38): "Though you will not believe Me,

believe the works"; and (John 5:36): "The works which the Father hath

given Me to perfect . . . themselves . . . give testimony to Me."

Reply Obj. 1: These words, "a sign shall not be given it, but the

sign of Jonas," mean, as Chrysostom says (Hom. xliii in Matth.), that

"they did not receive a sign such as they sought, viz. from heaven":

but not that He gave them no sign at all. Or that "He worked signs

not for the sake of those whom He knew to be hardened, but to amend

others." Therefore those signs were given, not to them, but to others.

Reply Obj. 2: Although Christ came "in the infirmity" of the flesh,

which is manifested in the passions, yet He came "in the power of

God" [*Cf. 2 Cor. 13:4], and this had to be made manifest by miracles.

Reply Obj. 3: Miracles lessen the merit of faith in so far as those

are shown to be hard of heart who are unwilling to believe what is

proved from the Scriptures unless (they are convinced) by miracles.

Yet it is better for them to be converted to the faith even by

miracles than that they should remain altogether in their unbelief.

For it is written (1 Cor. 14:22) that signs are given "to

unbelievers," viz. that they may be converted to the faith.

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Summa Theologica, Part III (Tertia Pars) From the Complete American Edition · 第 290 / 654 题