THIRD ARTICLE [III, Q. 33, Art. 3]

Whether Christ's Flesh Was First of All Conceived and Afterwards

Assumed?

Objection 1: It would seem that Christ's flesh was first of all

conceived, and afterwards assumed. Because what is not cannot be

assumed. But Christ's flesh began to exist when it was conceived.

Therefore it seems that it was assumed by the Word of God after it

was conceived.

Obj. 2: Further, Christ's flesh was assumed by the Word of God, by

means of the rational soul. But it received the rational soul at the

term of the conception. Therefore it was assumed at the term of the

conception. But at the term of the conception it was already

conceived. Therefore it was first of all conceived and afterwards

assumed.

Obj. 3: Further, in everything generated, that which is imperfect

precedes in time that which is perfect: which is made clear by the

Philosopher (Metaph. ix). But Christ's body is something generated.

Therefore it did not attain to its ultimate perfection, which

consisted in the union with the Word of God, at the first instant of

its conception; but, first of all, the flesh was conceived and

afterwards assumed.

_On the contrary,_ Augustine says (De Fide ad Petrum xviii [*Written

by Fulgentius]): "Hold steadfastly, and doubt not for a moment that

Christ's flesh was not conceived in the Virgin's womb, before being

assumed by the Word."

_I answer that,_ As stated above, we may say properly that "God was

made man," but not that "man was made God": because God took to

Himself that which belongs to man--and that which belongs to man did

not pre-exist, as subsisting in itself, before being assumed by the

Word. But if Christ's flesh had been conceived before being assumed

by the Word, it would have had at some time an hypostasis other than

that of the Word of God. And this is against the very nature of the

Incarnation, which we hold to consist in this, that the Word of God

was united to human nature and to all its parts in the unity of

hypostasis: nor was it becoming that the Word of God should, by

assuming human nature, destroy a pre-existing hypostasis of human

nature or of any part thereof. It is consequently contrary to faith

to assert that Christ's flesh was first of all conceived and

afterwards assumed by the Word of God.

Reply Obj. 1: If Christ's flesh had been formed or conceived, not

instantaneously, but successively, one of two things would follow:

either that what was assumed was not yet flesh, or that the flesh was

conceived before it was assumed. But since we hold that the

conception was effected instantaneously, it follows that in that

flesh the beginning and the completion of its conception were in the

same instant. So that, as Augustine [*Fulgentius, De Fide ad Petrum

xviii] says: "We say that the very Word of God was conceived in

taking flesh, and that His very flesh was conceived by the Word

taking flesh."

From the above the reply to the Second Objection is clear. For in the

same moment that this flesh began to be conceived, its conception and

animation were completed.

Reply Obj. 3: The mystery of the Incarnation is not to be looked upon

as an ascent, as it were, of a man already existing and mounting up

to the dignity of the Union: as the heretic Photinus maintained.

Rather is it to be considered as a descent, by reason of the perfect

Word of God taking unto Himself the imperfection of our nature;

according to John 6:38: "I came down from heaven."

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Summa Theologica, Part III (Tertia Pars) From the Complete American Edition · 第 228 / 654 题