SECOND ARTICLE [III, Q. 31, Art. 2]

Whether Christ Took Flesh of the Seed of David?

Objection 1: It would seem that Christ did not take flesh of the seed

of David. For Matthew, in tracing the genealogy of Christ, brings it

down to Joseph. But Joseph was not Christ's father, as shown above

(Q. 28, A. 1, ad 1, 2). Therefore it seems that Christ was not

descended from David.

Obj. 2: Further, Aaron was of the tribe of Levi, as related Ex. 6.

Now Mary the Mother of Christ is called the cousin of Elizabeth, who

was a daughter of Aaron, as is clear from Luke 1:5, 36. Therefore,

since David was of the tribe of Juda, as is shown Matt. 1, it seems

that Christ was not descended from David.

Obj. 3: Further, it is written of Jechonias (Jer. 22:30): "Write this

man barren . . . for there shall not be a man of his seed that shall

sit upon the throne of David." Whereas of Christ it is written (Isa.

9:7): "He shall sit upon the throne of David." Therefore Christ was

not of the seed of Jechonias: nor, consequently, of the family of

David, since Matthew traces the genealogy from David through

Jechonias.

_On the contrary,_ It is written (Rom. 1:3): "Who was made to him of

the seed of David according to the flesh."

_I answer that,_ Christ is said to have been the son especially of

two of the patriarchs, Abraham and David, as is clear from Matt. 1:1.

There are many reasons for this. First to these especially was the

promise made concerning Christ. For it was said to Abraham (Gen.

22:18): "In thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed":

which words the Apostle expounds of Christ (Gal. 3:16): "To Abraham

were the promises made and to his seed. He saith not, 'And to his

seeds' as of many; but as of one, 'And to thy seed,' which is

Christ." And to David it was said (Ps. 131:11): "Of the fruit of thy

womb I will set upon thy throne." Wherefore the Jewish people,

receiving Him with kingly honor, said (Matt. 21:9): "Hosanna to the

Son of David."

A second reason is because Christ was to be king, prophet, and

priest. Now Abraham was a priest; which is clear from the Lord saying

unto him (Gen. 15:9): "Take thee [Vulg.: 'Me'] a cow of three years

old," etc. He was also a prophet, according to Gen. 20:7: "He is a

prophet; and he shall pray for thee." Lastly David was both king and

prophet.

A third reason is because circumcision had its beginning in Abraham:

while in David God's election was most clearly made manifest,

according to 1 Kings 13:14: "The Lord hath sought Him a man according

to His own heart." And consequently Christ is called in a most

special way the Son of both, in order to show that He came for the

salvation both of the circumcised and of the elect among the Gentiles.

Reply Obj. 1: Faustus the Manichean argued thus, in the desire to

prove that Christ is not the Son of David, because He was not

conceived of Joseph, in whom Matthew's genealogy terminates.

Augustine answered this argument thus (Contra Faust. xxii): "Since

the same evangelist affirms that Joseph was Mary's husband and that

Christ's mother was a virgin, and that Christ was of the seed of

Abraham, what must we believe, but that Mary was not a stranger to

the family of David: and that it is not without reason that she was

called the wife of Joseph, by reason of the close alliance of their

hearts, although not mingled in the flesh; and that the genealogy is

traced down to Joseph rather than to her by reason of the dignity of

the husband? So therefore we believe that Mary was also of the family

of David: because we believe the Scriptures, which assert both that

Christ was of the seed of David according to the flesh, and that Mary

was His Mother, not by sexual intercourse but retaining her

virginity." For as Jerome says on Matt. 1:18: "Joseph and Mary were

of the same tribe: wherefore he was bound by law to marry her as she

was his kinswoman. Hence it was that they were enrolled together at

Bethlehem, as being descended from the same stock."

Reply Obj. 2: Gregory of Nazianzum answers this objection by saying

that it happened by God's will, that the royal family was united to

the priestly race, so that Christ, who is both king and priest,

should be born of both according to the flesh. Wherefore Aaron, who

was the first priest according to the Law, married a wife of the

tribe of Juda, Elizabeth, daughter of Aminadab. It is therefore

possible that Elizabeth's father married a wife of the family of

David, through whom the Blessed Virgin Mary, who was of the family of

David, would be a cousin of Elizabeth. Or conversely, and with

greater likelihood, that the Blessed Mary's father, who was of the

family of David, married a wife of the family of Aaron.

Again, it may be said with Augustine (Contra Faust. xxii) that if

Joachim, Mary's father, was of the family of Aaron (as the heretic

Faustus pretended to prove from certain apocryphal writings), then we

must believe that Joachim's mother, or else his wife, was of the

family of David, so long as we say that Mary was in some way

descended from David.

Reply Obj. 3: As Ambrose says on Luke 3:25, this prophetical passage

does not deny that a posterity will be born of the seed of Jechonias.

And so Christ is of his seed. Neither is the fact that Christ reigned

contrary to prophecy, for He did not reign with worldly honor; since

He declared: "My kingdom is not of this world."

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Summa Theologica, Part III (Tertia Pars) From the Complete American Edition · 第 213 / 654 题