FOURTH ARTICLE [III, Q. 28, Art. 4]

Whether the Mother of God Took a Vow of Virginity?

Objection 1: It would seem that the Mother of God did not take a vow

of virginity. For it is written (Deut. 7:14): "No one shall be barren

among you of either sex." But sterility is a consequence of

virginity. Therefore the keeping of virginity was contrary to the

commandment of the Old Law. But before Christ was born the old law

was still in force. Therefore at that time the Blessed Virgin could

not lawfully take a vow of virginity.

Obj. 2: Further, the Apostle says (1 Cor. 7:25): "Concerning virgins

I have no commandment of the Lord; but I give counsel." But the

perfection of the counsels was to take its beginning from Christ, who

is the "end of the Law," as the Apostle says (Rom. 10:4). It was not

therefore becoming that the Virgin should take a vow of virginity.

Obj. 3: Further, the gloss of Jerome says on 1 Tim. 5:12, that "for

those who are vowed to virginity, it is reprehensible not only to

marry, but also to desire to be married." But the Mother of Christ

committed no sin for which she could be reprehended, as stated above

(Q. 27, A. 4). Since therefore she was "espoused," as related by Luke

1:27 it seems that she did not take a vow of virginity.

_On the contrary,_ Augustine says (De Sanct. Virg. iv): "Mary

answered the announcing angel: 'How shall this be done, because I

know not man?' She would not have said this unless she had already

vowed her virginity to God."

_I answer that,_ As we have stated in the Second Part (II-II, Q. 88,

A. 6), works of perfection are more praiseworthy when performed in

fulfilment of a vow. Now it is clear that for reasons already given

(AA. 1, 2, 3) virginity had a special place in the Mother of God. It

was therefore fitting that her virginity should be consecrated to God

by vow. Nevertheless because, while the Law was in force both men and

women were bound to attend to the duty of begetting, since the

worship of God was spread according to carnal origin, until Christ

was born of that people; the Mother of God is not believed to have

taken an absolute vow of virginity, before being espoused to Joseph,

although she desired to do so, yet yielding her own will to God's

judgment. Afterwards, however, having taken a husband, according as

the custom of the time required, together with him she took a vow of

virginity.

Reply Obj. 1: Because it seemed to be forbidden by the law not to

take the necessary steps for leaving a posterity on earth, therefore

the Mother of God did not vow virginity absolutely, but under the

condition that it were pleasing to God. When, however, she knew that

it was acceptable to God, she made the vow absolute, before the

angel's Annunciation.

Reply Obj. 2: Just as the fulness of grace was in Christ perfectly,

yet some beginning of the fulness preceded in His Mother; so also the

observance of the counsels, which is an effect of God's grace, began

its perfection in Christ, but was begun after a fashion in His Virgin

Mother.

Reply Obj. 3: These words of the Apostle are to be understood of

those who vow chastity absolutely. Christ's Mother did not do this

until she was espoused to Joseph. After her espousals, however, by

their common consent she took a vow of virginity together with her

spouse.

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Summa Theologica, Part III (Tertia Pars) From the Complete American Edition · 第 202 / 654 题