SIXTH ARTICLE [III, Q. 22, Art. 6]

Whether the Priesthood of Christ Was According to the Order of

Melchisedech?

Objection 1: It would seem that Christ's priesthood was not according

to the order of Melchisedech. For Christ is the fountain-head of the

entire priesthood, as being the principal priest. Now that which is

principal is not secondary in regard to others, but others are

secondary in its regard. Therefore Christ should not be called a

priest according to the order of Melchisedech.

Obj. 2: Further, the priesthood of the Old Law was more akin to

Christ's priesthood than was the priesthood that existed before the

Law. But the nearer the sacraments were to Christ, the more clearly

they signified Him; as is clear from what we have said in the Second

Part (II-II, Q. 2, A. 7). Therefore the priesthood of Christ should

be denominated after the priesthood of the Law, rather than after the

order of Melchisedech, which was before the Law.

Obj. 3: Further, it is written (Heb. 7:2, 3): "That is 'king of

peace,' without father, without mother, without genealogy; having

neither beginning of days nor ending of life": which can be referred

only to the Son of God. Therefore Christ should not be called a

priest according to the order of Melchisedech, as of some one else,

but according to His own order.

_On the contrary,_ It is written (Ps. 109:4): "Thou art a priest for

ever according to the order of Melchisedech."

_I answer that,_ As stated above (A. 4, ad 3) the priesthood of the

Law was a figure of the priesthood of Christ, not as adequately

representing the reality, but as falling far short thereof: both

because the priesthood of the Law did not wash away sins, and because

it was not eternal, as the priesthood of Christ. Now the excellence

of Christ's over the Levitical priesthood was foreshadowed in the

priesthood of Melchisedech, who received tithes from Abraham, in

whose loins the priesthood of the Law was tithed. Consequently the

priesthood of Christ is said to be "according to the order of

Melchisedech," on account of the excellence of the true priesthood

over the figural priesthood of the Law.

Reply Obj. 1: Christ is said to be according to the order of

Melchisedech not as though the latter were a more excellent priest,

but because he foreshadowed the excellence of Christ's over the

Levitical priesthood.

Reply Obj. 2: Two things may be considered in Christ's priesthood:

namely, the offering made by Christ, and (our) partaking thereof. As

to the actual offering, the priesthood of Christ was more distinctly

foreshadowed by the priesthood of the Law, by reason of the shedding

of blood, than by the priesthood of Melchisedech in which there was

no blood-shedding. But if we consider the participation of this

sacrifice and the effect thereof, wherein the excellence of Christ's

priesthood over the priesthood of the Law principally consists, then

the former was more distinctly foreshadowed by the priesthood of

Melchisedech, who offered bread and wine, signifying, as Augustine

says (Tract. xxvi in Joan.) ecclesiastical unity, which is

established by our taking part in the sacrifice of Christ [*Cf. Q.

79, A. 1]. Wherefore also in the New Law the true sacrifice of Christ

is presented to the faithful under the form of bread and wine.

Reply Obj. 3: Melchisedech is described as "without father, without

mother, without genealogy," and as "having neither beginning of days

nor ending of life," not as though he had not these things, but

because these details in his regard are not supplied by Holy

Scripture. And this it is that, as the Apostle says in the same

passage, he is "likened unto the Son of God," Who had no earthly

father, no heavenly mother, and no genealogy, according to Isa. 53:8:

"Who shall declare His generation?" and Who in His Godhead has

neither beginning nor end of days.

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Summa Theologica, Part III (Tertia Pars) From the Complete American Edition · 第 166 / 654 题