FOURTH ARTICLE [III, Q. 22, Art. 4]

Whether the Effect of the Priesthood of Christ Pertained Not Only to

Others, but Also to Himself?

Objection 1: It would seem that the effect of the priesthood of

Christ pertained not only to others, but also to Himself. For it

belongs to the priest's office to pray for the people, according to 2

Macc. 1:23: "The priests made prayer while the sacrifice was

consuming." Now Christ prayed not only for others, but also for

Himself, as we have said above (Q. 21, A. 3), and as expressly stated

(Heb. 5:7): "In the days of His flesh, with a strong cry and tears He

offered [Vulg.: 'offering'] up prayers and supplications to Him that

was able to save Him from death." Therefore the priesthood of Christ

had an effect not only in others, but also in Himself.

Obj. 2: Further, in His passion Christ offered Himself as a

sacrifice. But by His passion He merited, not only for others, but

also for Himself, as stated above (Q. 19, AA. 3, 4). Therefore the

priesthood of Christ had an effect not only in others, but also in

Himself.

Obj. 3: Further, the priesthood of the Old Law was a figure of the

priesthood of Christ. But the priest of the Old Law offered sacrifice

not only for others, but also for himself: for it is written (Lev.

16:17) that "the high-priest goeth into the sanctuary to pray for

himself and his house, and for the whole congregation of Israel."

Therefore the priesthood of Christ also had an effect not merely in

others, but also in Himself.

_On the contrary,_ We read in the acts of the Council of Ephesus

[*Part III, ch. i, anath. 10]: "If anyone say that Christ offered

sacrifice for Himself, and not rather for us alone (for He Who knew

not sin needed no sacrifice), let him be anathema." But the priest's

office consists principally in offering sacrifice. Therefore the

priesthood of Christ had no effect in Himself.

_I answer that,_ As stated above (A. 1), a priest is set between God

and man. Now he needs someone between himself and God, who of himself

cannot approach to God; and such a one is subject to the priesthood

by sharing in the effect thereof. But this cannot be said of Christ;

for the Apostle says (Heb. 7:25): "Coming of Himself to God, always

living to make intercession for us [Vulg.: 'He is able to save for

ever them that come to God by Him; always living,' etc.]." And

therefore it is not fitting for Christ to be the recipient of the

effect of His priesthood, but rather to communicate it to others. For

the influence of the first agent in every genus is such that it

receives nothing in that genus: thus the sun gives but does not

receive light; fire gives but does not receive heat. Now Christ is

the fountain-head of the entire priesthood: for the priest of the Old

Law was a figure of Him; while the priest of the New Law works in His

person, according to 2 Cor. 2:10: "For what I have pardoned, if I

have pardoned anything, for your sakes have I done it in the person

of Christ." Therefore it is not fitting that Christ should receive

the effect of His priesthood.

Reply Obj. 1: Although prayer is befitting to priests, it is not

their proper office, for it is befitting to everyone to pray both for

himself and for others, according to James 5:16: "Pray for one

another that you may be saved." And so we may say that the prayer by

which Christ prayed for Himself was not an action of His priesthood.

But this answer seems to be precluded by the Apostle, who, after

saying (Heb. 5:6), "Thou art a priest for ever according to the order

of Melchisedech," adds, "Who in the days of His flesh offering up

payers," etc., as quoted above (Obj. 1): so that it seems that the

prayer which Christ offered pertained to His priesthood. We must

therefore say that other priests partake in the effect of their

priesthood, not as priests, but as sinners, as we shall state farther

on (ad 3). But Christ had, simply speaking, no sin; though He had the

"likeness of sin in the flesh [Vulg.: 'sinful flesh']," as is

written Rom. 8:3. And, consequently, we must not say simply that He

partook of the effect of His priesthood but with this qualification--

in regard to the passibility of the flesh. Wherefore he adds

pointedly, "that was able to save Him from death."

Reply Obj. 2: Two things may be considered in the offering of a

sacrifice by any priest--namely, the sacrifice itself which is

offered, and the devotion of the offerer. Now the proper effect of

priesthood is that which results from the sacrifice itself. But

Christ obtained a result from His passion, not as by virtue of the

sacrifice, which is offered by way of satisfaction, but by the very

devotion with which out of charity He humbly endured the passion.

Reply Obj. 3: A figure cannot equal the reality, wherefore the

figural priest of the Old Law could not attain to such perfection as

not to need a sacrifice of satisfaction. But Christ did not stand in

need of this. Consequently, there is no comparison between the two;

and this is what the Apostle says (Heb. 7:28): "The Law maketh men

priests, who have infirmity; but the word of the oath, which was

since the Law, the Son Who is perfected for evermore."

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Summa Theologica, Part III (Tertia Pars) From the Complete American Edition · 第 164 / 654 题