SECOND ARTICLE [III, Q. 22, Art. 2]

Whether Christ Was Himself Both Priest and Victim?

Objection 1: It would seem that Christ Himself was not both priest

and victim. For it is the duty of the priest to slay the victim. But

Christ did not kill Himself. Therefore He was not both priest and

victim.

Obj. 2: Further, the priesthood of Christ has a greater similarity to

the Jewish priesthood, instituted by God, than to the priesthood of

the Gentiles, by which the demons were worshiped. Now in the old Law

man was never offered up in sacrifice: whereas this was very much to

be reprehended in the sacrifices of the Gentiles, according to Ps.

105:38: "They shed innocent blood; the blood of their sons and of

their daughters, which they sacrificed to the idols of Chanaan."

Therefore in Christ's priesthood the Man Christ should not have been

the victim.

Obj. 3: Further, every victim, through being offered to God, is

consecrated to God. But the humanity of Christ was from the beginning

consecrated and united to God. Therefore it cannot be said fittingly

that Christ as man was a victim.

_On the contrary,_ The Apostle says (Eph. 5:2): "Christ hath loved

us, and hath delivered Himself for us, an oblation and a victim

[Douay: 'sacrifice'] to God for an odor of sweetness."

_I answer that,_ As Augustine says (De Civ. Dei x, 5): "Every visible

sacrifice is a sacrament, that is a sacred sign, of the invisible

sacrifice." Now the invisible sacrifice is that by which a man offers

his spirit to God, according to Ps. 50:19: "A sacrifice to God is an

afflicted spirit." Wherefore, whatever is offered to God in order to

raise man's spirit to Him, may be called a sacrifice.

Now man is required to offer sacrifice for three reasons. First, for

the remission of sin, by which he is turned away from God. Hence the

Apostle says (Heb. 5:1) that it appertains to the priest "to offer

gifts and sacrifices for sins." Secondly, that man may be preserved

in a state of grace, by ever adhering to God, wherein his peace and

salvation consist. Wherefore under the old Law the sacrifice of

peace-offerings was offered up for the salvation of the offerers, as

is prescribed in the third chapter of Leviticus. Thirdly, in order

that the spirit of man be perfectly united to God: which will be most

perfectly realized in glory. Hence, under the Old Law, the holocaust

was offered, so called because the victim was wholly burnt, as we

read in the first chapter of Leviticus.

Now these effects were conferred on us by the humanity of Christ.

For, in the first place, our sins were blotted out, according to Rom.

4:25: "Who was delivered up for our sins." Secondly, through Him we

received the grace of salvation, according to Heb. 5:9: "He became to

all that obey Him the cause of eternal salvation." Thirdly, through

Him we have acquired the perfection of glory, according to Heb.

10:19: "We have [Vulg.: 'Having'] a confidence in the entering into

the Holies" (i.e. the heavenly glory) "through His Blood." Therefore

Christ Himself, as man, was not only priest, but also a perfect

victim, being at the same time victim for sin, victim for a

peace-offering, and a holocaust.

Reply Obj. 1: Christ did not slay Himself, but of His own free-will

He exposed Himself to death, according to Isa. 53:7: "He was offered

because it was His own will." Thus He is said to have offered Himself.

Reply Obj. 2: The slaying of the Man Christ may be referred to a

twofold will. First, to the will of those who slew Him: and in this

respect He was not a victim: for the slayers of Christ are not

accounted as offering a sacrifice to God, but as guilty of a great

crime: a similitude of which was borne by the wicked sacrifices of

the Gentiles, in which they offered up men to idols. Secondly, the

slaying of Christ may be considered in reference to the will of the

Sufferer, Who freely offered Himself to suffering. In this respect He

is a victim, and in this He differs from the sacrifices of the

Gentiles.

(The reply to the third objection is wanting in the original

manuscripts, but it may be gathered from the above.--Ed.)

[*Some editions, however, give the following reply:

Reply Obj. 3: The fact that Christ's manhood was holy from its

beginning does not prevent that same manhood, when it was offered to

God in the Passion, being sanctified in a new way--namely, as a

victim actually offered then. For it acquired then the actual

holiness of a victim, from the charity which it had from the

beginning, and from the grace of union sanctifying it absolutely.]

_______________________

Summa Theologica, Part III (Tertia Pars) From the Complete American Edition · 第 162 / 654 题