ELEVENTH ARTICLE [III, Q. 16, Art. 11]

Whether This Is True: "Christ As Man Is God"?

Objection 1: It would seem that Christ, as Man, is God. For Christ is

God by the grace of union. But Christ, as Man, has the grace of

union. Therefore Christ as Man is God.

Obj. 2: Further, to forgive sins is proper to God, according to Isa.

43:25: "I am He that blot out thy iniquities for My own sake." But

Christ as Man forgives sin, according to Matt. 9:6: "But that you may

know that the Son of Man hath power on earth to forgive sins," etc.

Therefore Christ as Man is God.

Obj. 3: Further, Christ is not Man in common, but is this particular

Man. Now Christ, as this Man, is God, since by "this Man" we signify

the eternal suppositum which is God naturally. Therefore Christ as

Man is God.

_On the contrary,_ Whatever belongs to Christ as Man belongs to every

man. Now, if Christ as Man is God, it follows that every man is

God--which is clearly false.

_I answer that,_ This term "man" when placed in the reduplication may

be taken in two ways. First as referring to the nature; and in this

way it is not true that Christ as Man is God, because the human

nature is distinct from the Divine by a difference of nature.

Secondly it may be taken as referring to the suppositum; and in this

way, since the suppositum of the human nature in Christ is the Person

of the Son of God, to Whom it essentially belongs to be God, it is

true that Christ, as Man, is God. Nevertheless because the term

placed in the reduplication signifies the nature rather than the

suppositum, as stated above (A. 10), hence this is to be denied

rather than granted: "Christ as Man is God."

Reply Obj. 1: It is not with regard to the same, that a thing moves

towards, and that it is, something; for to move belongs to a thing

because of its matter or subject--and to be in act belongs to it

because of its form. So too it is not with regard to the same, that

it belongs to Christ to be ordained to be God by the grace of union,

and to be God. For the first belongs to Him in His human nature, and

the second, in His Divine Nature. Hence this is true: "Christ as Man

has the grace of union"; yet not this: "Christ as Man is God."

Reply Obj. 2: The Son of Man has on earth the power of forgiving

sins, not by virtue of the human nature, but by virtue of the Divine

Nature, in which Divine Nature resides the power of forgiving sins

authoritatively; whereas in the human nature it resides

instrumentally and ministerially. Hence Chrysostom expounding this

passage says [*Implicitly. Hom. xxx in Matth; cf. St. Thomas, Catena

Aurea on Mk. 2:10]: "He said pointedly 'on earth to forgive sins,' in

order to show that by an indivisible union He united human nature to

the power of the Godhead, since although He was made Man, yet He

remained the Word of God."

Reply Obj. 3: When we say "this man," the demonstrative pronoun

"this" attracts "man" to the suppositum; and hence "Christ as this

Man, is God, is a truer proposition than Christ as Man is God."

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Summa Theologica, Part III (Tertia Pars) From the Complete American Edition · 第 135 / 654 题