Whether in the Soul of Christ There Was Any Habitual Grace?
Objection 1: It would seem there was no habitual grace in the soul
assumed by the Word. For grace is a certain partaking of the Godhead
by the rational creature, according to 2 Pet. 1:4: "By Whom He hath
given us most great and precious promises, that by these you may be
made partakers of the Divine Nature." Now Christ is God not by
participation, but in truth. Therefore there was no habitual grace in
Him.
Obj. 2: Further, grace is necessary to man, that he may operate well,
according to 1 Cor. 15:10: "I have labored more abundantly than all
they; yet not I, but the grace of God with me"; and in order that he
may reach eternal life, according to Rom. 6:23: "The grace of God
(is) life everlasting." Now the inheritance of everlasting life was
due to Christ by the mere fact of His being the natural Son of God;
and by the fact of His being the Word, by Whom all things were made,
He had the power of doing all things well. Therefore His human nature
needed no further grace beyond union with the Word.
Obj. 3: Further, what operates as an instrument does not need a habit
for its own operations, since habits are rooted in the principal
agent. Now the human nature in Christ was "as the instrument of the
Godhead," as Damascene says (De Fide Orth. iii, 15). Therefore there
was no need of habitual grace in Christ.
_On the contrary,_ It is written (Isa. 11:2): "The Spirit of the Lord
shall rest upon Him"--which (Spirit), indeed, is said to be in man by
habitual grace, as was said above (I, Q. 8, A. 3; Q. 43, AA. 3, 6).
Therefore there was habitual grace in Christ.
_I answer that,_ It is necessary to suppose habitual grace in Christ
for three reasons. First, on account of the union of His soul with
the Word of God. For the nearer any recipient is to an inflowing
cause, the more does it partake of its influence. Now the influx of
grace is from God, according to Ps. 83:12: "The Lord will give grace
and glory." And hence it was most fitting that His soul should
receive the influx of Divine grace. Secondly, on account of the
dignity of this soul, whose operations were to attain so closely to
God by knowledge and love, to which it is necessary for human nature
to be raised by grace. Thirdly, on account of the relation of Christ
to the human race. For Christ, as man, is the "Mediator of God and
men," as is written, 1 Tim. 2:5; and hence it behooved Him to have
grace which would overflow upon others, according to John 1:16: "And
of His fulness we have all received, and grace for grace."
Reply Obj. 1: Christ is the true God in Divine Person and Nature. Yet
because together with unity of person there remains distinction of
natures, as stated above (Q. 2, AA. 1, 2), the soul of Christ is not
essentially Divine. Hence it behooves it to be Divine by
participation, which is by grace.
Reply Obj. 2: To Christ, inasmuch as He is the natural Son of God, is
due an eternal inheritance, which is the uncreated beatitude through
the uncreated act of knowledge and love of God, i.e. the same whereby
the Father knows and loves Himself. Now the soul was not capable of
this act, on account of the difference of natures. Hence it behooved
it to attain to God by a created act of fruition which could not be
without grace. Likewise, inasmuch as He was the Word of God, He had
the power of doing all things well by the Divine operation. And
because it is necessary to admit a human operation, distinct from the
Divine operation, as will be shown (Q. 19, A. 1), it was necessary
for Him to have habitual grace, whereby this operation might be
perfect in Him.
Reply Obj. 3: The humanity of Christ is the instrument of the
Godhead--not, indeed, an inanimate instrument, which nowise acts, but
is merely acted upon; but an instrument animated by a rational soul,
which is so acted upon as to act. And hence the nature of the action
demanded that he should have habitual grace.
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