There is no evidence in Scripture, or in any early writing, of any such
practice as _washing feet_, in time of worship, or associated with
worship, either public or private, as a religious rite, an ordinance,
an act of devotion, or in any other way. There is no intimation that
the washing of the saints’ feet alluded to, I. Tim. v. 10, was a
religious rite, or an ordinance connected with worship, any more than
lodging strangers. It is put down in the list of “good works,” and not
religious rites or devotions.
In like manner, the feet washing mentioned, John xiii. 1-10, was not
in time of worship, nor at the time of the Passover, but “before the
feast of the Passover,” and after supper, or “supper being ended,” he
“rose from supper and laid aside his garments, and took a towel, and
girded himself.” This was not in _public_ at all, but in the _private
circle_. It was not in a meeting, nor in time of worship at all, but
after a common meal. The washing of feet was not a new thing with them,
nor were any surprised at _feet washing_, for it was common, and a
_necessity_. That which was new about it, was for the Lord and Master
to wash the servants’ feet. Had the order been for the servant to wash
the Master’s feet, there would have been nothing new to them in it. But
they were abashed at the idea of their Lord and Master washing their
feet. With this view, Peter said, “Lord, dost thou wash my feet?”
The Lord responded, “What I do you know not now; but you shall know
hereafter.” Peter persisted, not against _feet washing_, but against
_the Lord_ washing _his feet_. “Thou shalt never wash my feet.”
If washing the saints’ feet had been a religious rite connected with
the communion, how could Paul have omitted it, when giving that which
he received of the Lord? See I. Cor. xi. 20-34. He says, “I received
of the Lord that which I delivered to you.” He then proceeds to tell
us what it was. See I. Cor. xi. 23-25. This was instituted on “the
same night in which the Lord was betrayed.” The occasion of the feet
washing (John xiii. 1-10) was not on “the same night in which the Lord
was betrayed,” but “before the feast of the Passover.” The feast of the
Passover was over before the communion was instituted. We think the
following is true in regard to the matter: That the feet washing was
_before_ the Passover, and the institution of the communion was _after
it_; that two days intervened, and that the two things done were also
at _two places_, the one at _one place_ and the other at _another_. The
washing of feet did not occur at the same time nor in the same place of
the institution of the communion, nor is there the least evidence that
it ever was practiced in connection with the communion in the primitive
church, nor is there the least authority for it.
We have never witnessed anything of the kind, but we have been informed
repeatedly that where they practice this ceremony now, they only wash
_one foot_ of each person. We would like to know where they get this.
It is not in John xiii. 1-10.