Mr. Editor,--Perhaps the subjoined note, extracted from M. Collin de
Plancy's _Bibliothèque des Légendes_, may not be without its value, as
tending to correct an error into which, according to his account, modern
historians have fallen respecting the origin of the surname "Martel,"
borne by the celebrated Charles Martel, son of Peppin of Herstal, Duke
of Austrasia, by his Duchess Alphéide[2]:--
"It is surprising," he says, "that almost all our modern
historians, whose profound researches have been so highly
vaunted, have repeated the little tale of the _Chronicle of St.
Denis_, which affirms that the surname of Martel was conferred
on Charles for having hammered (_martelé_) the Saracens. Certain
writers of the present day style him, in this sense,
_Karle-le-Marteau_. The word martel, in the ancient Frank
language, never bore such a signification, but was, on the
contrary, merely an abbreviation of Martellus, Martin."[3]
From a legend on this subject given by M. de Plancy, it would appear
that Charles received the second name, Martel, in honour of his patron
saint St. Martin.
Not having at present an opportunity of consulting the works of our own
modern writers on early French history, I am ignorant if they also have
adopted the version given in the _Chronicle of St. Denis_. Mr. Ince, in
his little work, _Outlines of French History_, states, that "he received
the surname of _Martel_, or the Hammerer, from the force with which he
_hammered_ down the Saracens--_martel being the name of a weapon which
the ancient Franks used, much resembling a hammer_,--and from his
strokes falling numberless and effectual on the heads of his enemies."
Query.--Which of the two is the more probable version? Perhaps some one
of your numerous correspondents may be enabled to throw addition light
on this disputed point.